Chapter 1

Chapter: 1, Question 1, Total: 0:
Treatment decisions based on research are called:

off-line protocols.
standard of care.
evidence-based.
higher medical authority.

Chapter: 1, Question 2, Total: 1:
Which of the following terms is the description of medical techniques or practices that are supported by scientific evidence confirming their safety and efficacy?

Quality improvement
Evidence-based
Injury prevention
Patient outcomes

Chapter: 1, Question 3, Total: 2:
The modern EMS system in the United States began in the:

2000s.
1960s.
1980s.
1950s.

Chapter: 1, Question 4, Total: 3:
After World War II, who was the person who usually provided ambulance transport?

The local undertaker
The local police service
The local doctor's office
The local National Guard

Chapter: 1, Question 5, Total: 4:
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration provides a set of recommended standards for EMS systems called the Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards. Which of the following is one of these ten standards?

Medical direction
Vehicle maintenance
Personnel scheduling
System access

Chapter: 1, Question 6, Total: 5:
You have just become an EMS instructor, and now you are teaching a helmet safety awareness class for a local elementary school. This activity would be in support of which Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standard?

Public information and education
Evaluation
Human resources and training
Regulation and policy

Chapter: 1, Question 7, Total: 6:
An enhanced 911 system allows the emergency dispatcher to:

respond to the scene of a medical incident much quicker.
immediately access the phone number and address from which the call is being made.
contact police, fire, and EMS personnel simultaneously.
provide step-by-step CPR instructions to the caller.

Chapter: 1, Question 8, Total: 7:
Refresher courses for EMTs are required:

at 2- to 4-year intervals.
only if the EMT's skills are poor.
annually.
as determined by each employer.

Chapter: 1, Question 9, Total: 8:
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an Advanced EMT should be trained to:

decompress a chest cavity.
initiate cardiac pacing.
perform a needle jet insufflation.
administer medications intravenously.

Chapter: 1, Question 10, Total: 9:
How many nationally recognized levels of EMS practitioner are there?

Two
Four
Three
Five

Chapter: 1, Question 11, Total: 10:
To receive the highest quality of care, some patients need to be transported to special facilities, such as patients who have:

broken a long bone.
a diabetic emergency or altered mental status.
been critically burned or had a stroke.
been exposed to extremes of cold or heat.

Chapter: 1, Question 12, Total: 11:
What is the MOST common destination facility to which an EMT will be transporting patients?

Private physician's office
Hospital cardiac, medical, or trauma intensive-care units
Hospital emergency department
Freestanding emergency care facility

Chapter: 1, Question 13, Total: 12:
The EMT's FIRST and MOST important priority is:

proper vehicle maintenance.
personal safety.
the safety of other rescuers.
patient welfare.

Chapter: 1, Question 14, Total: 13:
Which of the following are you most likely to do for every patient transport?

Allow family members to ride in the patient compartment.
Obtain the patient's insurance information.
Use lights and siren to minimize transport time.
Notify the receiving facility of the nature and extent of injuries.

Chapter: 1, Question 15, Total: 14:
What do many fire departments require of an employee?

Cross-training as a firefighter
Cross-training as an EMT
Cross-training as a volunteer
Cross-training as a policeman

Chapter: 1, Question 16, Total: 15:
Which of the following is TRUE of EMTs?

Most EMTs work for the fire department.
EMTs must be municipal employees.
All EMTs are paid.
Many EMTs are volunteer EMS providers.

Chapter: 1, Question 17, Total: 16:
Holding an NREMT certification may help you in which of the following situations?

Gaining reciprocity
Passing an EMT examination
Providing prehospital care
Establishing protocols

Chapter: 1, Question 18, Total: 17:
The NREMT is involved in:

EMS curriculum development.
making reciprocity difficult.
rules and regulations for EMTs.
establishing local EMS protocols.

Chapter: 1, Question 19, Total: 18:
Why would the failure of a CQI program to advise EMTs within the system about the system's overall performance pose a risk to future patients?

It may lead to inaccurate reporting of issues to the state EMS office.
It may result in "over-triage" of patients and the transport of patients to the hospital who should never have gone.
It may lead to patient care errors from lack of knowledge about treatment protocols.
It may result in inadequate data collection for billing purposes.

Chapter: 1, Question 20, Total: 19:
What is one way in which an EMT can work toward high-quality care?

By limiting his or her education to core requirements
By advising against the QI process
By checking and maintaining the equipment
By writing run reports after a shift

Chapter: 1, Question 21, Total: 20:
One aspect of quality improvement in which every EMT can participate is:

rewriting agency protocols.
participating in continuing education.
ignoring controversial local statutes.
developing standing orders.

Chapter: 1, Question 22, Total: 21:
As an EMT, your role in quality improvement includes:

carefully and thoroughly documenting each call.
withholding important information from your CQI officer because it pertains to your partner.
conducting follow-up interviews with patients.
keeping your opinions and observations to yourself

Chapter: 1, Question 23, Total: 22:
You believe that your patient should be given nitroglycerin for his chest pain. You do not have off-line protocols for this, so you should:

administer the medication and document accordingly.
encourage the patient to self-administer the medication.
transport the patient.
contact medical direction.

Chapter: 1, Question 24, Total: 23:
What is the official name for the physician who assumes responsibility for all patient care aspects within a specific EMS system?

Physician on call
Chief of staff
Medical administrator
Medical director

Chapter: 1, Question 25, Total: 24:
A term for treatments backed by research that proves that the interventions have positive effects in patient care is:

authority-based treatment.
evidence-based medicine.
early goal-directed therapy.
traditional approach.

Chapter: 1, Question 26, Total: 25:
Which step in the evidence-based medicine process deals with the concept of determining what we already know about a particular intervention or situation?

Changing of protocol on the basis of the research outcome
Searching medical literature
Appraising evidence for validity and reliability
Formulating a question

Chapter: 1, Question 27, Total: 26:
EMS has a role in many public health issues, including:

vaccination programs.
promoting safer vehicle design.
regulating the number of work hours.
enforcing the speeding laws.

Chapter: 1, Question 28, Total: 27:
The system by which the medical community oversees the basic health of a population is known as:

emergency medical services.
hospital-based care system.
the public health system.
best clinical practices.

Chapter: 1, Question 29, Total: 28:
You respond to a domestic violence call with your partner and the local volunteer fire department. If you are all threatened by the patient, who should you make sure is safe first?

Your partner
The firefighters
The patient
Yourself

Chapter: 1, Question 30, Total: 29:
You are taking care of a patient who has been assigned to you during a mass-casualty incident. What should precede your emergency care?

Patient assessment
Patient advocacy
Communicating with law enforcement
Leaving the scene

Chapter: 1, Question 31, Total: 30:
Maintaining current knowledge, skills and EMT certification or licensure is:

the role of your regional EMT training council.
the responsibility of your service training officer.
the responsibility of your service medical director.
part of your role as an EMS professional.

Chapter: 1, Question 32, Total: 31:
The National Highway Safety Act charged which government entity with developing an EMS system and upgrading prehospital emergency care?

State EMS agencies
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
U.S. Department of Transportation
American Red Cross

Chapter: 1, Question 33, Total: 32:
Which of the following governmental departments was responsible for developing EMS standards and assisting states to upgrade the quality of their prehospital emergency care?

National EMS Council
National Registry of EMTs
U.S. Department of Transportation
National Highway Traffic Safety Council

Chapter: 1, Question 34, Total: 33:
The Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standard specifying that each patient must be transported in a timely manner to the closest appropriate medical facility is:

transportation.
regulation and policy.
human resources and training.
facilities.

Chapter: 1, Question 35, Total: 34:
In which of the following quality improvement activities does the EMT participate MOST often?

Writing new protocols
Teaching EMS classes
Documentation
Deposition

Chapter: 1, Question 36, Total: 35:
A 911 system that allows the call taker to automatically view the caller's location and phone number is known as:

localized 911.
rapid 911.
enhanced 911.
GPS 911.

Chapter: 1, Question 37, Total: 36:
Of the four levels of prehospital emergency medical training, which provides the most advanced level of prehospital care?

Advanced EMT level
Paramedic level
Emergency Medical Responder level
Emergency Medical Technician level

Chapter: 1, Question 38, Total: 37:
Which of the following activities is most likely to lead to harm to the EMT or the patient if performed improperly?:

Conducting a patient history
Lifting and moving patients
Communicating with the dispatcher
Taking vital signs

Chapter: 1, Question 39, Total: 38:
Which of the following patients would MOST likely be transported to the closest emergency department rather than a specialty facility for initial management, assuming that all the facilities were within the EMT's jurisdiction?

An unresponsive overdose patient with airway complications
A pediatric patient who ingested a poison
A high-risk obstetric patient
A multisystem trauma victim

Chapter: 1, Question 40, Total: 39:
When applying for a new job as an EMT, you had to watch a videotaped scenario and then complete a prehospital care report and give an oral patient hand-off report. This activity was designed to assess:

your ability to be polite and considerate in a stressful situation.
your tolerance for an order from management.
your empathy for the patient in the mock scenario.
the expected ability to maintain good verbal and written communication skills.

Chapter: 1, Question 41, Total: 40:
Confidence and initiative are examples of a good EMT's:

physical demands.
personal traits.
knowledge and skills.
patient care advocacy.

Chapter: 1, Question 42, Total: 41:
Which of the following will help to prevent errors that may jeopardize the patient's safety?

Never admit that you do not know what to do.
Always go with your first instinct.
Ask for assistance if you need it.
Use intuition and judgment rather than protocols.

Chapter: 1, Question 43, Total: 42:
Neatness cleanliness, and professionalism should be demonstrated by your:

empathy.
voice.
appearance.
mannerisms.

Chapter: 1, Question 44, Total: 43:
The EMT's first priority during a call is to protect:

innocent bystanders.
the patient's family.
the patient.
himself or herself.

Chapter: 1, Question 45, Total: 44:
Which of the following is LEAST likely to employ an EMT?

Fire department
Funeral home
Industrial setting
Ambulance service

Chapter: 1, Question 46, Total: 45:
Which of the following is a certification level established by the National Registry of EMTs?

Flight paramedic
Critical care nurse
AMR
EMR

Chapter: 1, Question 47, Total: 46:
What is the name of the program that EMS services should establish to better assess the ongoing efficiency of the care they are rendering to patients?

Enhanced 911
Quality improvement
Continuing education
Trauma registry

Chapter: 1, Question 48, Total: 47:
Your CQI officer sends you a request for additional information about a patient you had six months ago who subsequently died. How should you respond to this request?

Respond to this request, but do so in a way that is not incriminating to yourself.
Respond to this request to the best of your ability, given your memory of the call.
Ignore this request because the law does not require it.
Contact a lawyer before responding to this request.

Chapter: 1, Question 49, Total: 48:
Which of the following is the MOST important reason why documentation is an important part of any CQI program?

It allows for better interpretation of the care that was rendered.
The law requires it.
It eliminates the risk of lawsuits.
It permits the CQI team to upload required statistics to the state trauma registry.

Chapter: 1, Question 50, Total: 49:
Which of the following statements would BEST describe the beneficial effect to the CQI program when the EMT performs a maintenance check on the ambulance equipment before each shift?

It will identify whether any equipment is malfunctioning before its use in an actual patient emergency.
It will have no beneficial effect for the CQI program.
It will help to determine who will be awarded the CQI program's "EMT of the Month" award.
It will ensure that the EMT is doing the mandated morning checks of the ambulance.

Chapter: 1, Question 51, Total: 50:
The EMT gains the authority to render care from the:

supervisor.
NHTSA.
medical director.
base hospital.

Chapter: 1, Question 52, Total: 51:
Off-line medical control for an EMT is provided by a physician through:

telephone contact.
standing orders.
in-person direction.
radio contact.

Chapter: 1, Question 53, Total: 52:
The EMT is on the scene treating a patient, and the patient's physician is on scene ordering the EMT to transport the patient to somewhere other than the closest appropriate facility. The BEST person the EMT could contact would be:

the EMS chief.
law enforcement.
the EMS supervisor on duty.
medical direction.

Chapter: 1, Question 54, Total: 53:
Which step in the evidence-based medicine process deals with the concept of deciding what aspect of emergency medicine to investigate?

Formulate a hypothesis
Changing of protocol on the basis of the research outcome
Appraising evidence for validity and reliability
Searching medical literature

Chapter: 1, Question 55, Total: 54:
Which of the following is an example of a local public health emergency?

CO poisoning of a household
A school bus crash
A multiple-residence structural fire
Contaminated water supply due to flooding

Chapter: 1, Question 56, Total: 55:
You notice that your EMT certification will expire in the next year. What is one way to stay current and renew your card?

Participating in continuing education
Just working your regular shift
Performing community service
Doing a research project



Chapter 2

Chapter: 2, Question 1, Total: 56:
Stress is:

a normal reaction that occurs very infrequently during the career of an EMT.
a state of physical or psychological arousal to a stimulus.
a disease process in which the EMT feels bad after a particularly difficult call.
an abnormal reaction to a traumatizing event experienced by the EMT.

Chapter: 2, Question 2, Total: 57:
The standard against infection that assumes that all blood and body fluids are infectious and requires all emergency workers to practice a strict form of infection control is called:

Universal Precautions.
Standard Precautions.
infection prevention.
sterilization.

Chapter: 2, Question 3, Total: 58:
Exercising, eating a healthy diet, using relaxation techniques, and seeking professional counseling are all ways of managing:

critical infections.
cancer.
stress.
anorexia.

Chapter: 2, Question 4, Total: 59:
Which of the following core components of well-being relates to physical fitness?

Diversity awareness
Emotional stability
Memory skills
Cardiovascular endurance

Chapter: 2, Question 5, Total: 60:
When managing a 28-year-old male patient who has been vomiting blood and has a fever, the EMT should consider that the patient might have a:

foodborne illness
bloodborne illness
vector-borne illness
noncontagious illness

Chapter: 2, Question 6, Total: 61:
What type of precautions should an EMT take when caring for an intoxicated female who is trying to spit on the EMS crew?

Gloves and a mask
Gloves only
Gloves and eye protection
Gloves, eye protection, and a mask

Chapter: 2, Question 7, Total: 62:
Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective at:

reducing the risk of contracting TB.
removing visible contaminants.
killing anthrax.
helping to kill microorganisms.

Chapter: 2, Question 8, Total: 63:
When soap and water are available, what method of hand cleaning should be utilized?

Alcohol-based hand cleaner
Vigorous hand washing
Abrasive scrubbing pad
A quick rinse with warm water only

Chapter: 2, Question 9, Total: 64:
What is the mode of transmission for Ebola?

Respiratory droplets.
Airborne droplets.
Nasal secretions.
Blood and body fluids.

Chapter: 2, Question 10, Total: 65:
Which of the following poses the greatest risk of exposure to TB?

Private residences
Places with domestic animals
Gyms and fitness centers
Institutions such as nursing homes

Chapter: 2, Question 11, Total: 66:
Which of the following caused concern worldwide when it emerged and caused almost 800 deaths?

SARS
AIDS
CHF
TB

Chapter: 2, Question 12, Total: 67:
Which of the following is found in poultry and can affect humans?

H1N1
West Nile virus
ARDS
Avian flu

Chapter: 2, Question 13, Total: 68:
What U.S. entity established guidelines that require certain precautions to be taken to prevent the transmission of disease through contact with body fluids?

Transportation and highway safety
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Pathology and disease control
The Surgeon General

Chapter: 2, Question 14, Total: 69:
Diseases are caused by microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses, known as:

pathogens.
germs.
secretions.
droplets.

Chapter: 2, Question 15, Total: 70:
What type of mask should you don if you suspect that the elderly patient for whom you are caring has tuberculosis?

N-95 respirator
No mask or face protection is necessary with a patient who is suspected of having TB.
Disposable surgical type face mask
High-action particulate air (HAPA) mask

Chapter: 2, Question 16, Total: 71:
Which of the following procedures carries the highest risk of spreading TB to the EMT?

Bag-valve-mask breathing
Oral airway placement
Modified jaw thrust
Endotracheal suctioning

Chapter: 2, Question 17, Total: 72:
Which of the following is often part of an employment physical?

TB test
Chest x-ray
Hepatitis C test
HIV test

Chapter: 2, Question 18, Total: 73:
What test can detect whether an EMT has been exposed to tuberculosis?

MMR
TBA
TST
PPE

Chapter: 2, Question 19, Total: 74:
You are working a shift with a new EMT who just finished school. As you tell him about emergencies to which you responded in the past, which one would be MOST likely to stress out the new EMT?

A 32-year-old male who was shot and killed by a psychotic patient
A two-year-old female who was physically abused and died
An 89-year-old grandmother who suffered cardiac arrest at a family picnic
A 17-year-old male who was killed when he was riding his bike and was struck by a car

Chapter: 2, Question 20, Total: 75:
The warning signs of stress include:

intense concentration on work.
loss of sexual desire or interest.
the need for interaction with family and friends.
increased appetite.

Chapter: 2, Question 21, Total: 76:
When your pupils dilate, your heart rate increases, your bronchial passages dilate, and your blood sugar increases, what stage of stress response is this?

Resolution
Exhaustion
Alarm
Resistance

Chapter: 2, Question 22, Total: 77:
In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is an EMT who has adapted to a stimulus such it no longer produces stress for him or her?

Recovery
Exhaustion
Alarm
Resistance

Chapter: 2, Question 23, Total: 78:
A state of exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease one's effectiveness in delivering emergency medical care is referred to as:

eustress.
stress.
anguish.
burnout.

Chapter: 2, Question 24, Total: 79:
You are near the end of a 24-hour shift with your permanent partner. You have noticed that over the past two or three shifts, your partner has been very irritable, indecisive, and at time condescending to your patients. These findings are consistent with:

cognitive dissonance.
a stress reaction.
inadvertent operation syndrome.
social conversion.

Chapter: 2, Question 25, Total: 80:
Positive changes in your work environment can help you manage job-related stress. These changes include:

criticizing coworkers or making negative comments whenever possible.
rotating to a busier station or duty assignment.
getting some exercise, such as aerobics, at the station.
requesting additional or overtime shifts and burying yourself in your work.

Chapter: 2, Question 26, Total: 81:
Which of the following is the best way to reduce stress?

Spend time alone.
Devote time to relaxation.
Accept the challenge of an extreme diet.
Accept more responsibility at work.

Chapter: 2, Question 27, Total: 82:
What is the overall purpose of a CISD event?

To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident
To identify how to improve the emergency response system
To provide a method of tracking MCI events and the types of human responses that occur both during and after the event
To provide professional counseling for the emergency workers who participated in the event

Chapter: 2, Question 28, Total: 83:
During a CISD, who is usually involved in a defusing session?

Only the personnel who seem to be the most unaffected by the events of the incident
Everyone who was a part of the case, regardless of his or her direct or indirect involvement in the incident
Just the team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals
The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident

Chapter: 2, Question 29, Total: 84:
Death and dying are inherent parts of emergency medical care. Which of the following is one of the five emotional stages experienced by a dying patient?

Defeat
Bargaining
Relief
Euphoria

Chapter: 2, Question 30, Total: 85:
During the depression stage of dying, the patient may:

appear to be relieved and look forward to "passing on."
target the EMT with anger.
become silent, distant, sad, and despondent.
appear to accept death, though not be happy about it.

Chapter: 2, Question 31, Total: 86:
To help reduce the emotional burden of the dying patient, you should:

use a firm tone of voice to let the patient and family know that you are in charge.
not touch the patient or allow the family to touch or hold the patient.
listen empathetically to the patient and honor the patient's requests.
give the patient assurances, even if they are false.

Chapter: 2, Question 32, Total: 87:
In caring for the dying patient, it is important to:

avoid telling the family how serious the patient's condition is.
keep the family away from the patient to avoid any emotional stress.
be honest about the situation and allow the family access to the patient.
tell the patient that "everything will be all right."

Chapter: 2, Question 33, Total: 88:
Which of the following has historically caused the most EMS provider deaths?

Stroke
Air medical crashes
Assault
Accidental needlestick

Chapter: 2, Question 34, Total: 89:
What is the primary rule in dealing with a hazardous material incident?

Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material.
Make sure your ambulance is equipped with binoculars for identifying placards.
Immediately begin to care for your patients.
Always have the Emergency Response Guidebook available on your phone.

Chapter: 2, Question 35, Total: 90:
A car has struck an electrical pole, and there are live wires down on the car. A patient is trapped in the vehicle. What is the MOST appropriate action?

Perform a rapid extrication, but do not touch the wires.
Have the fire department rescue the patient and bring him to you.
Do not approach the car, and call the electric company.
Approach the car cautiously, and watch for gasoline leaks.

Chapter: 2, Question 36, Total: 91:
Which of the following is LEAST likely to contain hazardous materials?

Warehouses
Trains
Trucks
Schools

Chapter: 2, Question 37, Total: 92:
When working in traffic, EMTs should have:

a hard hat.
full turnout gear.
a level A suit.
reflective clothing or vest.

Chapter: 2, Question 38, Total: 93:
Placing your body behind an object that can hide you from view is called:

cowardly.
concealment.
cowering.
cover.

Chapter: 2, Question 39, Total: 94:
Which of the following could have an incubation period of several years?

AIDS
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Mumps

Chapter: 2, Question 40, Total: 95:
For which disease is vaccination still not available to the public?

Pneumonia
AIDS
Hepatitis B
Influenza

Chapter: 2, Question 41, Total: 96:
Which of the following must the EMT perform on each and every emergency call?

Immediately assess all patients on arrival at the scene.
Ensure that the scene is safe before entering.
Contact the receiving facility with a patient report.
Wear a HEPA or N95 mask.

Chapter: 2, Question 42, Total: 97:
Exam gloves should be latex free because:

latex gloves are more expensive.
exposure to latex increases the risk of developing a latex allergy.
latex gloves are not compatible with oxygen.
use of latex gloves is not allowed by OSHA.

Chapter: 2, Question 43, Total: 98:
Eye protection, protective gloves, gowns, and masks are known as:

personal protective equipment.
infection protection.
infection control devices.
Universal Precautions.

Chapter: 2, Question 44, Total: 99:
Which of the following is MOST likely to lead to medical errors and poor decision making?

Personal problems
Poor diet
Fatigue
Caffeine abuse

Chapter: 2, Question 45, Total: 100:
In addition to good lifting techniques, what factors play a role in long-term well-being in EMS?

Rest between EMS calls
Vacationing
Nutrition and physical fitness
Low call volume

Chapter: 2, Question 46, Total: 101:
What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with hepatitis B or C?

Gloves
Gloves and eyewear
Gloves and hand washing
Gloves, eyewear, and hand washing

Chapter: 2, Question 47, Total: 102:
What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with tuberculosis?

Gloves and gown
Gloves and surgical mask
Gloves
Gloves, eyewear, and HEPA mask

Chapter: 2, Question 48, Total: 103:
Diseases are caused by microorganisms that may be spread through the air or by contact with blood or other body fluids and that are known as:

antimicrobes.
antigens.
pathogens.
histamines.

Chapter: 2, Question 49, Total: 104:
The best way for an EMT to prevent the spread of infection is by:

applying alcohol-based hand cleaner often.
avoiding contact with infected patients.
vigorous hand washing.
always wearing a surgical-type mask.

Chapter: 2, Question 50, Total: 105:
Recommended immunizations for active-duty EMTs include:

gamma globulin annually.
rabies vaccine.
hepatitis B vaccine.
hepatitis C vaccine.

Chapter: 2, Question 51, Total: 106:
What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with a staphylococcal skin infection?

Hand washing only
Mask or eyewear
Gloves and hand washing
Gloves only

Chapter: 2, Question 52, Total: 107:
Mumps is transmitted by:

feces.
blood.
saliva.
semen.

Chapter: 2, Question 53, Total: 108:
After using a disposable bag-valve-mask (BVM) device to ventilate a patient, the EMT should:

wash the BVM out with soap and return it to service.
turn the BVM in for gas or heat sterilization.
wrap the BVM back up, as it can be used again as long as it is not visibly soiled.
dispose of the BVM according to hospital or EMS service policy.

Chapter: 2, Question 54, Total: 109:
You are treating a patient who has a fever and a cough. He is bringing up red-tinged frothy sputum with each coughing spell. What specific infection control PPE is MOST appropriate?

A Tyvek suit
A level A suit
A HEPA or N-95 mask on the rescuer
A surgical mask or NRB on the rescuer

Chapter: 2, Question 55, Total: 110:
A TST test or PPD test is used to test for:

hepatitis B.
mumps.
tuberculosis.
smallpox.

Chapter: 2, Question 56, Total: 111:
A situation that often produces an extreme level of stress for the EMT is:

transport of a terminally ill patient.
a medical emergency involving an elderly person.
an emergency response with a law enforcement agency.
an emergency involving infants and children.

Chapter: 2, Question 57, Total: 112:
What stage of the general adaptation syndrome involves an individual who has lost the ability to resist or adapt to a stressor and may become seriously ill as a consequence?

Exhaustion
Alarm
Resistance
Termination

Chapter: 2, Question 58, Total: 113:
Which of the following is a type of stress that the EMT will likely experience on the job?

Repetitive stress
Acute stress
Habitual stress
Compound stress

Chapter: 2, Question 59, Total: 114:
A situation that causes you to experience emotions that are unusually strong and may interfere with your ability to function is called:

a critical incident.
an emotional incident.
a traumatic incident.
a stress incident.

Chapter: 2, Question 60, Total: 115:
A state of exhaustion, irritability, and fatigue that is brought about by work-related problems and results in the inability to perform one's duties effectively as an EMT is known as:

burnout.
stressout.
critical incident stress.
serious fatigue.

Chapter: 2, Question 61, Total: 116:
As an EMT who is looking for ways to improve your personal wellness and ability to resist job-related stress, you should focus on:

considering taking medication to help manage stressful times.
increasing your coffee and tea intake.
increasing the amount of exercise you get in your day.
watching more TV and playing more video games.

Chapter: 2, Question 62, Total: 117:
A CISD meeting usually takes place:

before the end of shift.
immediately after the incident.
24 to 72 hours after the incident.
about one week after the incident.

Chapter: 2, Question 63, Total: 118:
The refusal of the patient to accept the possibility of death occurs during which emotional stage of dying?

Anger
Denial
Relief
Bargaining

Chapter: 2, Question 64, Total: 119:
When dealing with the patient and family who are confronted with death or dying, the EMT should:

assure the patient that "Everything will be okay."
discourage the patient from sharing feelings and needs.
be tolerant of angry reactions.
avoid talking directly to the patient.

Chapter: 2, Question 65, Total: 120:
Disentangling victims from fires, auto collisions, explosions, or electrocutions is known as:

rescue operations.
terrorist operations.
multiple-casualty incidents.
hazmat incidents.

Chapter: 2, Question 66, Total: 121:
An incident involving intentional disbursement of a chemical agent is likely:

a terrorism incident.
an industrial accident.
a domestic dispute.
a multivehicle accident.

Chapter: 2, Question 67, Total: 122:
When an EMT finds a position that both hides and protects his or her body from projectiles, it is called:

concealment.
cowardly.
cover.
cowering.

Chapter: 2, Question 68, Total: 123:
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by airborne droplets?

Chicken pox
Staph infections
AIDS
Hepatitis

Chapter: 2, Question 69, Total: 124:
How many sets of gloves should the EMT carry at any time?

2
0
1
3



Chapter 3

Chapter: 3, Question 1, Total: 125:
The safest and MOST efficient methods for using one's body to facilitate lifting and moving are called:

lifting techniques
body mechanics
body structures
lifting mechanics

Chapter: 3, Question 2, Total: 126:
When you are lifting and carrying equipment with one hand, it is important to keep your back in what position?

Locked
Backward curved
Forward curved
Flexible

Chapter: 3, Question 3, Total: 127:
Safe patient lifting and moving techniques include:

carrying as much equipment as you can at one time to minimize on-scene time.
using the easiest recommended moves and equipment.
having patients walk to the ambulance.
using as few people as possible to assist with the lifting to avoid injuries.

Chapter: 3, Question 4, Total: 128:
What is the MOST important thing you can do to prevent an injury to yourself when moving patients?

Know your limitations.
Work with a strong partner.
Always call for backup for any patient who weighs over 200 pounds.
Let your partner lift the head of the wheeled cot.

Chapter: 3, Question 5, Total: 129:
An important key to preventing injury while lifting or moving is:

extending or flexing the wrists and knees to prevent injury to the extremities.
maintaining an outward curve of the back to reduce the potential for spinal injury.
using manual force instead of equipment when possible.
not compensating when lifting with one hand.

Chapter: 3, Question 6, Total: 130:
To use your legs instead of your back to lift, you must:

keep the weight close to your body.
place your palms downward.
keep the weight at arm's length.
lock both elbows straight.

Chapter: 3, Question 7, Total: 131:
Bending all fingers at the same angle and placing the hands ten inches apart are two key elements of the:

traction lift.
power grip.
power lift.
stretcher operation.

Chapter: 3, Question 8, Total: 132:
Which of the following technique is used by power weight lifters?

Power lift
Squat thrust
Clean-and-jerk lift
Knee-chest lift

Chapter: 3, Question 9, Total: 133:
In reaching, what should be done every time?

Twist.
Prolong the reach.
Reach more than fifteen inches.
Have a locked-in back.

Chapter: 3, Question 10, Total: 134:
Which of the following is recommended in moving something heavy?

Leaning
Pushing
Reaching
Pulling

Chapter: 3, Question 11, Total: 135:
When assessing a patient, you quickly decide that it is in the patient's best interest for you to do an emergency move. Which of the following is NOT an indication for an emergency move?

You are unable to provide lifesaving care to the patient because of the patient's location.
Dispatch is holding calls for your community.
There is immediate danger to you.
You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.

Chapter: 3, Question 12, Total: 136:
An emergency move would be permitted in order to change a patient's position so that you could:

dress a wound.
perform CPR.
splint an open fracture.
apply a cervical spine collar.

Chapter: 3, Question 13, Total: 137:
An efficient way of transferring a patient from your wheeled stretcher to a hospital bed is called the:

direct ground lift.
extremity lift.
direct carry method.
draw sheet method.

Chapter: 3, Question 14, Total: 138:
To minimize or prevent aggravation of a spinal injury during an emergency move, the EMT should move the patient in the direction of the:

vertical axis of the body.
lateral axis of the body.
short axis of the body.
long axis of the body.

Chapter: 3, Question 15, Total: 139:
An ambulance that is specially equipped to handle obese patients is called:

a medium-duty ambulance.
an MICU ambulance.
a bariatric ambulance.
a critical care ambulance.

Chapter: 3, Question 16, Total: 140:
Short backboards (vest or KED) are usually used to:

assist in lifting patients up steep terrain.
immobilize sitting patients before moving them.
secure patients with possible spinal injuries but without neurological deficits.
immobilize supine patients before transport.

Chapter: 3, Question 17, Total: 141:
In moving a patient on a stretcher, what is the safest level at which to do so?

The reclined position
A fully elevated position
Mid-elevated from the ground
Closest to the ground

Chapter: 3, Question 18, Total: 142:
There are two types of spine boards, one of which is the:

padded spine board.
pneumatic spine board.
pediatric spine board.
long spine board.

Chapter: 3, Question 19, Total: 143:
What is the BEST way to transport a patient securely who is suspected of having a spinal injury?

Sitting the captain's chair with the lap and shoulder belt on
Semi-Fowler's on the cot with the five-point harness attached
Supine on the cot
Fully immobilized with necessary spinal precautions

Chapter: 3, Question 20, Total: 144:
A stair chair should be used in which of the following circumstances?

When the patient has a lower-extremity injury
When traversing narrow corridors and doorways
When the patient has a suspected spinal injury
When the patient has altered mental status

Chapter: 3, Question 21, Total: 145:
Your patient is conscious, has no trauma, and is complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following is most likely the BEST way to position the patient during transport?

Sitting upright
Feet elevated
Left recumbent
Lying flat

Chapter: 3, Question 22, Total: 146:
Any patient who is unresponsive and has no spinal injury should be placed on the cot in which position?

Supine
Trendelenburg
Fowler's
Recovery

Chapter: 3, Question 23, Total: 147:
You are confronted with a situation in which your BEST option to move the patient will be to quickly use a blanket drag, shirt drag, or armpit-forearm drag. These maneuvers are referred to as:

emergency moves.
nonurgent moves.
direct ground moves.
urgent moves.

Chapter: 3, Question 24, Total: 148:
Maintaining physical fitness and use of proper lifting and moving techniques by EMTs is of utmost importance because:

you will have to call for a lift assist more often than is appropriate.
you should always make sure you are stronger than your partner.
the process of lifting and moving patients is one skill that is used on almost every patient.
if you drop a patient, you will be sued.

Chapter: 3, Question 25, Total: 149:
To avoid injuries while lifting and moving an obese patient over a long distance, what must always be present among team members?

Communication
Relationships
Cohesion
Camaraderie

Chapter: 3, Question 26, Total: 150:
What muscle groups should NOT be utilized in preparing to lift a heavy patient from the ground?

Back muscles
Hip muscles
Leg muscles
Gluteal muscles

Chapter: 3, Question 27, Total: 151:
General guidelines for lifting include:

minimizing verbal communication.
positioning your feet approximately six inches apart.
considering the size and weight of the patient.
challenging yourself physically.

Chapter: 3, Question 28, Total: 152:
Which of the choices would be a poor technique to use if you were about to lift a heavy patient?

Lifting with the muscles of your legs, buttocks, and hip
"Stacking" your body and moving it as a unit
Lifting the patient and twist while lowering to the stretcher
Keeping the weight close to your body

Chapter: 3, Question 29, Total: 153:
When reaching, pushing, or pulling, the EMT should always:

keep the knees locked in
keep the elbows locked in
keep the back locked in.
keep the wrists locked in

Chapter: 3, Question 30, Total: 154:
Fire and exposure to explosives or other hazardous materials are examples of immediate dangers that would warrant:

a rapid move such as the FAST maneuver.
an emergency move such as a clothes drag.
an abbreviated move such as a two-person ground lift.
an urgent move such as rapid extrication.

Chapter: 3, Question 31, Total: 155:
You have been dispatched to a home where, upon entering, you note that there is smoke in the rear of the building. The patient is unconscious on the living room couch. You have about two to three minutes to get the patient out the front door. What type of move will this require?

Use an urgent move to get the patient out.
A nonurgent move will work in this case.
An emergency move will be the most appropriate in this case.
Get the stair chair and wheel the patient out.

Chapter: 3, Question 32, Total: 156:
When performing a one-rescuer drag down stairs, you should:

push, not pull, the patient.
drag the patient head first.
drag the patient feet first.
straddle the patient.

Chapter: 3, Question 33, Total: 157:
A flexible device that is used to help immobilize the spine of an adult patient in confined spaces, such as a bucket seat of a car, is a:

scoop stretcher.
vest-type extrication device.
Pedi-Mate backboard.
Reeves stretcher.

Chapter: 3, Question 34, Total: 158:
Which of the following is a patient who could be transported on a stair chair?

An unresponsive patient
A patient with a need for airway care
A patient with a neck or spine injury
A patient who is having difficulty breathing

Chapter: 3, Question 35, Total: 159:
Unresponsive patients with no suspected spinal injury should be placed:

in the supine position.
in the semi-sitting position.
in the prone position.
in the recovery position.

Chapter: 3, Question 36, Total: 160:
For many conscious patients, which of the following is the most comfortable position for transport?

Shock position
Fetal position
Prone position
Semi-sitting position.



Chapter 4

Chapter: 4, Question 1, Total: 161:
An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty of:

child endangerment.
negligence.
domestic abuse.
psychological abuse.

Chapter: 4, Question 2, Total: 162:
What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily harm?

Slander
Libel
Assault
Battery

Chapter: 4, Question 3, Total: 163:
What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the EMT's job?

Standard of care
Tort
Scope of practice
Res ipsa loquitur

Chapter: 4, Question 4, Total: 164:
What is an EMT's primary ethical consideration?

Making the company bottom line a priority
Making partner relations a priority
Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority
Making efficiency a priority

Chapter: 4, Question 5, Total: 165:
The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called the:

Good Samaritan law.
standing orders.
standard of care.
scope of practice.

Chapter: 4, Question 6, Total: 166:
The care that would be expected to be provided to the same patient under the same circumstances by another EMT who had received the same training is called the:

standard of care.
duty to act.
protocol.
scope of practice.

Chapter: 4, Question 7, Total: 167:
Which of the following terms means "in place of the parents"?

Quid pro quo
Parental transfer
In loco parentis
Minor consent

Chapter: 4, Question 8, Total: 168:
You proceed to treat a patient who has consented to care, but you have NOT explained the risks and benefits of what you are going to do. This is MOST likely a violation of:

informed consent.
justice.
objectivity.
nonmalfeasance.

Chapter: 4, Question 9, Total: 169:
An EMT who demonstrates ideal conduct when treating patients is displaying good:

ethics.
clinical judgment.
discipline.
critical thinking.

Chapter: 4, Question 10, Total: 170:
The BEST defense for lawsuits relating to the care that has been provided a patient is to:

wait for advanced life support personnel to provide care.
allow the most senior EMT to provide the patient care.
always contact on-line medical control before providing any care.
keep your patient's best interests in mind when rendering care.

Chapter: 4, Question 11, Total: 171:
A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be transported, so you have him sign a refusal of treatment form. You are demonstrating the ethical principle of:

avoiding a conflict of interest.
a patient's right to self-determination.
full disclosure.
beneficence.

Chapter: 4, Question 12, Total: 172:
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a patient's car struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact. However, the patient is now conscious, alert and oriented, and refusing care and transport. You should:

leave after having the patient sign the refusal form.
have the law enforcement officer place the patient under arrest, as she is obviously in danger.
use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse.
inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment.

Chapter: 4, Question 13, Total: 173:
A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is the known as the:

health care proxy
advance directive
standard of care
termination of resuscitation

Chapter: 4, Question 14, Total: 174:
Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishes regarding medical care are called:

advance directives.
automated care orders.
extended patient directives.
physician orders.

Chapter: 4, Question 15, Total: 175:
If a patient feels that he received harmful care by an EMT, he would need to prove that:

the patient suffered a permanent injury.
there was intent to harm.
the EMT had a duty to act.
the injuries were due to gross negligence.

Chapter: 4, Question 16, Total: 176:
Wheeling a non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency department, placing him in a bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff constitute:

acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to.
acceptable actions if someone sees you do them.
acceptable actions if the ED is very busy.
abandonment.

Chapter: 4, Question 17, Total: 177:
Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are called:

protocols.
advance directives.
immunity proclamations.
Good Samaritan laws.

Chapter: 4, Question 18, Total: 178:
EMTs can still be held liable and NOT protected by Good Samaritan laws if:

the patient dies from the injuries.
their actions cause embarrassment for the patient.
their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning.
their actions demonstrate gross negligence.

Chapter: 4, Question 19, Total: 179:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA):

allows you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so.
requires you to obtain the patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions.
allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent.
allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station.

Chapter: 4, Question 20, Total: 180:
Who is responsible for overseeing HIPAA issues at an EMS agency?

The highest-ranking EMS provider
The privacy officer
The billing officer
The EMS supervisor

Chapter: 4, Question 21, Total: 181:
If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking site, this could be considered:

breach of faith.
battery.
slander.
libel.

Chapter: 4, Question 22, Total: 182:
You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is "just another drunk." This would likely be considered:

a HIPAA violation.
negligence.
libel.
slander.

Chapter: 4, Question 23, Total: 183:
If they discovered that a seriously injured patient is an organ donor, the emergency care providers should:

treat the patient the same as a nondonor.
confirm with the family that this was the patient's decision.
transport the patient to a donor harvesting site.
ignore a DNR order and perform CPR.

Chapter: 4, Question 24, Total: 184:
You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle collision, and the patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You noticed on the patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the patient's wishes by:

trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive.
withholding CPR until the patient's donor status is confirmed.
transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going.
notifying medical direction of the patient's organ donor status.

Chapter: 4, Question 25, Total: 185:
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene?

Family pictures
Fingerprints
Medical care by an EMT
Patient advocacy

Chapter: 4, Question 26, Total: 186:
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene?

Clean napkins in a drawer
The homeowner's pet
The refrigerator icemaker
The position in which the patient is found

Chapter: 4, Question 27, Total: 187:
While providing patient care at a secured crime scene, you should:

use the telephone to call in a report to medical control.
cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance.
pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer.
not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing.

Chapter: 4, Question 28, Total: 188:
What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene?

The EMT's name badge contains improper credentials.
The patient has multiple injuries.
The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration.
The police want to interview the patient.

Chapter: 4, Question 29, Total: 189:
When you unexpectedly find yourself at a crime scene, you should immediately:

request more EMTs to the scene.
request fire department personnel.
handle it by yourself.
request law enforcement.

Chapter: 4, Question 30, Total: 190:
You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. It is unclear whether the shooter is still on the scene. You should:

ask the patient to identify the person who shot him.
quickly stabilize and transport the patient.
request law enforcement immediately.
locate the shooter and restrain him or her.

Chapter: 4, Question 31, Total: 191:
You have just arrived at the station to start your shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is to:

see whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up.
tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance.
tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call.
notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you.

Chapter: 4, Question 32, Total: 192:
You have been under a lot of family stress lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this morning, you realized that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your well-being. After hearing this, you know that your duty as an EMT is to:

tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work.
quit talking about your problems at work, as you are worried what your crew members would say.
go see your physician.
take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work.

Chapter: 4, Question 33, Total: 193:
An EMS provider's standard of care represents and defines:

the national curriculum of care taught by EMT instructors.
the care that would be expected to be provided on the basis of training.
specific care that is provided to patients once they reach a hospital.
laws that define and govern the specific actions of EMTs.

Chapter: 4, Question 34, Total: 194:
Which of the following is TRUE about the scope of practice?

It is governed solely by the EMT's employer.
It is governed by many medical, legal, and ethical guidelines.
Each EMT determines his or her own scope of practice.
The scope of practice is the same in all jurisdictions.

Chapter: 4, Question 35, Total: 195:
Among the sources that are used to define the EMT's scope of practice is the:

The EMS system's medical director.
The U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook.
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certification exam.
The EMT textbook.

Chapter: 4, Question 36, Total: 196:
An adult patient's consent may be obtained through expressed consent or:

directed consent.
emergency consent.
implied consent.
indirect consent.

Chapter: 4, Question 37, Total: 197:
Expressed consent:

is obtained from a parent or legal guardian.
must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before treatment is started.
occurs when you assume that a patient who is unresponsive would consent to life-saving emergency care.
is obtained from a law enforcement officer who has placed the patient in custody.

Chapter: 4, Question 38, Total: 198:
You overhear an EMT talking to your partner about a well-known personality whom the other EMT recently treated. This is an example of a:

professional consultation.
duty to act.
moral decision.
violation of professional ethics.

Chapter: 4, Question 39, Total: 199:
A patient fell from the roof of a house while doing repair work. The patient is alert and oriented and has no injuries. The patient wants to refuse transport. The EMT should:

obtain a signature on the refusal form and advise the patient that he should drive himself to the ED if he experiences any changes over the next four hours.
obtain a signature of refusal and return to service.
have law enforcement respond to the scene so that they can witness the refusal.
perform an assessment, let the patient know the findings and recommendations, and try to persuade the patient to be transported because of the mechanism of injury.

Chapter: 4, Question 40, Total: 200:
A legal document usually signed by the patient and his or her physician stating that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts is a:

discontinuation directive.
termination order.
do not resuscitate order.
standard of care.

Chapter: 4, Question 41, Total: 201:
The document that is MOST often used to cover general health care issues, including the use of long-term life support equipment, is called a:

living will.
DNR order.
modified support order.
health care proxy.

Chapter: 4, Question 42, Total: 202:
In most states, an off-duty EMT:

is not allowed to render aid.
has a duty to act.
cannot be guilty of abandonment.
has no legal obligation to provide care.

Chapter: 4, Question 43, Total: 203:
The obligation of an EMT to provide care is called the:

standard of care.
Good Samaritan law.
scope of practice.
duty to act.

Chapter: 4, Question 44, Total: 204:
If you stop providing care to a patient without ensuring that equivalent or better care will be provided, you could be legally liable for:

gross negligence.
abandonment.
negligence.
violating standard of care.

Chapter: 4, Question 45, Total: 205:
To which of the following situations do Good Samaritan laws generally apply?

Personnel who respond to an emergency when off duty
Emergency care personnel who commit gross negligence
Individuals who establish online medical direction
Only government employees

Chapter: 4, Question 46, Total: 206:
Under which of the following circumstances would it be appropriate to share personally identifiable information about a patient's medical condition?

When talking to anyone who would be unlikely to know or be related to the patient
When giving a hand-off report to a nurse at the receiving hospital
When lecturing to a group of EMT students
When asked over the phone by an attorney who says that she is representing the patient

Chapter: 4, Question 47, Total: 207:
Your partner is telling others that you are having sexual relations with another person of the same sex. You are not. You could bring your partner up on charges of:

libel.
tort.
confidentiality.
slander.

Chapter: 4, Question 48, Total: 208:
Which of the following is TRUE about organ donation?

Organ donation is automatic once a person turns 18 years age.
A donor must complete a legal document registering as an organ donor.
EMS providers can make a patient an organ donor if the family approves.
EMS providers are required to perform CPR on all organ donors.

Chapter: 4, Question 49, Total: 209:
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene?

Towels in a dryer
Cleaned clothes
New window drapes
A weapon

Chapter: 4, Question 50, Total: 210:
Your patient has several stab wounds to his anterior torso. You must quickly remove his shirt to access the wounds. The BEST way to remove the shirt from this patient would be to:

cut up both sides of the shirt from the bottom to the sleeves and on each side from the neck down the arms.
cut straight up the front of the front of the shirt, even if it means cutting through a hole in it.
avoid cutting through any holes in the shirt.
sit the patient up and pull the shirt over his head.

Chapter: 4, Question 51, Total: 211:
Which of the following situations is the EMT required to report?

A professional sporting injury
A motor vehicle accident involving a child
A fall injury at a nursing home
Suspected child abuse

Chapter: 4, Question 52, Total: 212:
Upon arrival, you discover a deceased patient who apparently committed suicide. You must first:

notify law enforcement.
contact a member of the immediate family.
document the scene.
begin taking statements from bystanders.

Chapter: 4, Question 53, Total: 213:
When confronted with an issue regarding patient consent or restraining a patient, if issues are NOT clear, which of the following concepts should guide your decision making?

Always assume the least legal risk.
Always act in the patient's best interest.
Never transport a patient who does not want to be treated.
Always transport patients who are making bad decisions.



Chapter 5

Chapter: 5, Question 1, Total: 214:
Study of the function of the living body and its parts, or how the body works, is called:

psychology.
anatomy.
physiology.
sociology.

Chapter: 5, Question 2, Total: 215:
The study of the body's structures is referred to as:

polyintegration.
anatomy.
physiology.
pathophysiology.

Chapter: 5, Question 3, Total: 216:
What is the MOST important reason EMTs should have a good grasp on the proper use of medical terminology?

It allows clear communication with other health care providers.
The profession requires it.
It is necessary to use in order to speak to physicians.
It shows the patient that EMTs are well educated.

Chapter: 5, Question 4, Total: 217:
Which of the following is TRUE about medical terminology?

EMTs are not allowed to use or document medical terms.
EMTs are encouraged to know basic medical terminology, but it is not essential.
EMTs should use complex medical terms whenever possible.
EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology.

Chapter: 5, Question 5, Total: 218:
A patient would see a cardiologist for a problem with the:

brain.
stomach.
bones.
heart.

Chapter: 5, Question 6, Total: 219:
"-ist" refers to:

one who specializes in.
above normal.
pertaining to.
below normal.

Chapter: 5, Question 7, Total: 220:
What is the meaning of the acronym "CPAP"?

Conductive paired alveolar perfusion
Circulatory perfusion assistance power
Combined pulmonary action potential
Continuous positive airway pressure

Chapter: 5, Question 8, Total: 221:
Which of the following is considered a high-risk situation in which the EMT should be cautious about the use of abbreviations and acronyms?

During a patient hand-off report
During conversations with fellow EMTs
When making study flashcards
While preparing for a recertification exam

Chapter: 5, Question 9, Total: 222:
When talking to a patient or family members, what does the EMT need to remember to do?

Use abbreviations whenever appropriate.
Speak in lay terms about the patient's condition.
Try to convince the family that there is no reason to go to the ED.
Explain everything once so that transport is not delayed.

Chapter: 5, Question 10, Total: 223:
Which of the following is a best practice for an EMT?

Always use medical terminology around patients you are treating.
Explain medical procedures to a patient using acronyms.
Know your anatomy and use its jargon when talking to family.
Resist the urge to use complex medical terminology when a simple term will do.

Chapter: 5, Question 11, Total: 224:
Imaginary straight line divisions of the body are called:

physiological divisions.
positional placements.
geometric components.
anatomical planes.

Chapter: 5, Question 12, Total: 225:
If your patient is lying face up on his or her back, the patient is said to be in what position?

Supine
Anatomical
Lateral
Prone

Chapter: 5, Question 13, Total: 226:
Which of the following statements BEST uses the term "distal"?

The ankle is distal to the hip.
The shoulder is distal to the elbow.
The elbow is distal to the wrist.
The nose is distal to the ear.

Chapter: 5, Question 14, Total: 227:
Your patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means that:

one femur is fractured.
the femur is fractured lengthwise.
one femur is fractured in multiple places.
both femurs are fractured.

Chapter: 5, Question 15, Total: 228:
The study of the manner in which the parts of the human body work is called:

pathophysiology.
pharmacology.
anatomy.
physiology.

Chapter: 5, Question 16, Total: 229:
Which of the following is added to the beginning of words to modify their meaning?

Suffix
Root word
Prefix
Acronym

Chapter: 5, Question 17, Total: 230:
The word part "brady-" is considered what part of a medical term?

Suffix
Root
Prefix
Phrase

Chapter: 5, Question 18, Total: 231:
The part of a medical term that means "one who specializes in" is:

"-ology."
"-all."
"-neur."
"-ist."

Chapter: 5, Question 19, Total: 232:
What is an MI?

Massive implantation
Muscle index
Myocyte induction
Myocardial infarction

Chapter: 5, Question 20, Total: 233:
In explaining a complex disease process to a patient, it is best to:

use language that the patient can understand clearly.
talk slowly and make sure you explain in current medical jargon.
just draw a picture; otherwise, the patient won't understand.
be as concise as possible by using medical abbreviations.

Chapter: 5, Question 21, Total: 234:
In the lateral recumbent position, the patient is lying:

on the back with the upper body elevated.
face down on the stomach.
on the back with the lower body elevated.
on the right or left side with knees flexed.

Chapter: 5, Question 22, Total: 235:
When a patient is found lying on his or her stomach, face down, this is referred to as:

supine.
lateral.
recovery.
prone.

Chapter: 5, Question 23, Total: 236:
The transverse plane divides the body into what two halves?

Anterior/posterior
Medial/lateral
Distal/proximal
Superior/inferior

Chapter: 5, Question 24, Total: 237:
The "normal anatomical position" means that the patient is:

lying on the back, arms down at the sides, palms forward.
lying on the back, arms outstretched, palms facing forward.
standing erect, facing forward, arms down at the sides, palms forward.
standing erect, facing forward, arms outstretched, palms backward.



Chapter 6

Chapter: 6, Question 1, Total: 238:
Which glands produce the oil that collects on the surface of the skin?

Epithelial
Sebaceous
Meissner's
Adipose

Chapter: 6, Question 2, Total: 239:
The flap of tissue that is responsible for protecting the windpipe during swallowing is called the:

carina.
uvula.
bronchi.
epiglottis.

Chapter: 6, Question 3, Total: 240:
Which of the following structures is part of the digestive system?

Hypothalamus
Kidney
Gall bladder
Bladder

Chapter: 6, Question 4, Total: 241:
The thyroid gland, adrenal glands, and gonads are part of the:

reproductive system.
urinary system.
digestive system.
endocrine system.

Chapter: 6, Question 5, Total: 242:
Which of the following is part of the cranium?

Ischium
Patella
Occiput
Olecranon

Chapter: 6, Question 6, Total: 243:
The cervical spine is formed by:

the first seven vertebrae.
five vertebrae in the lower back.
twelve vertebrae inferior to the neck.
five fused vertebrae at the pelvis.

Chapter: 6, Question 7, Total: 244:
Which of the following is TRUE about respiratory anatomy in infants and children?

The tongue of an infant or child takes up proportionally more space than an adult's.
The nose of an infant is proportionally larger than that of an adult.
Infants and children rely less on the diaphragm to breathe than adults do.
The ribs are less pliable in infants than in adults.

Chapter: 6, Question 8, Total: 245:
Why is it critical to manage swelling of the pediatric patient's airway?

Because of the small diameter of the pediatric airway
Because of the rigidity of the pediatric patient's airway
Because the child's tongue is unlikely to cause an airway obstruction
Because of reduced oxygen demand in children

Chapter: 6, Question 9, Total: 246:
A condition that reduces the number of oxygen-carrying red blood cells is:

leukopenia.
polycythemia.
anemia.
erythropoiesis.

Chapter: 6, Question 10, Total: 247:
If oxygen is not present in sufficient supply, the body will shift to:

aerobic metabolism.
differential metabolism.
anaerobic metabolism.
mitochondrial metabolism.

Chapter: 6, Question 11, Total: 248:
Automaticity, the ability to generate an impulse on its own, is a property of:

cardiac muscle.
involuntary muscle.
smooth muscle.
skeletal muscle.

Chapter: 6, Question 12, Total: 249:
The chambered muscular organ that lies within the thoracic cavity and provides the forward propulsion of blood is the:

kidney.
heart.
lung.
liver.

Chapter: 6, Question 13, Total: 250:
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for the mechanics of inhalation?

Scalene muscle
Abdominal muscle
Diaphragm
Phrenic muscle

Chapter: 6, Question 14, Total: 251:
The set of neural tracts in the brain that must be functioning to allow consciousness to occur is known as the:

somatic nerves.
hypothalamus.
reticular activating system.
cranial nerves.

Chapter: 6, Question 15, Total: 252:
The kidneys are vital components of the:

endocrine system.
reproductive system.
urinary system.
digestive system.

Chapter: 6, Question 16, Total: 253:
Components of the male reproductive system include the:

fallopian tubes.
testes.
urethra.
ovaries.

Chapter: 6, Question 17, Total: 254:
Functions of the skeletal system include:

filtering and excreting wastes.
allowing for movement.
protecting the body from the environment and foreign organisms.
carrying sensory information to and from the brain.

Chapter: 6, Question 18, Total: 255:
What is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

Knee.
Elbow.
Hip.
Ankle.

Chapter: 6, Question 19, Total: 256:
The brachial arteries supply blood to the:

skull.
arms.
kidneys.
legs.

Chapter: 6, Question 20, Total: 257:
The brain and spinal cord make up the:

voluntary nervous system.
peripheral nervous system.
central nervous system.
autonomic nervous system.

Chapter: 6, Question 21, Total: 258:
After leaving a capillary, blood enters what structure on its trip back to the heart?

Vein
Venule
Artery
Arteriole

Chapter: 6, Question 22, Total: 259:
Epinephrine is secreted by the:

adrenal cortex.
thyroid gland.
hypothalamus gland.
adrenal gland.

Chapter: 6, Question 23, Total: 260:
Which gland regulates the metabolic rate?

The thyroid
The pituitary
The adrenals
The thymus

Chapter: 6, Question 24, Total: 261:
The nerves that are located outside the spinal cord and brain are parts of the:

cranial nerves.
peripheral nervous system.
autonomic nervous system.
voluntary nervous system.

Chapter: 6, Question 25, Total: 262:
The two primary muscles that are used for breathing are the diaphragm and the:

tracheal muscles.
pectoral muscles.
abdominal muscles.
intercostal muscles.

Chapter: 6, Question 26, Total: 263:
Which of the following is a sign of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?

Increased digestive functions
Constriction of the pupils
Increased heart rate
Shallow breathing

Chapter: 6, Question 27, Total: 264:
Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?

Filtering toxins from the blood
Ventilation and oxygenation
Transporting waste products from the cells to the lungs
Transporting oxygen to the body's cells

Chapter: 6, Question 28, Total: 265:
During exhalation, the size of the thoracic cavity:

expands rapidly.
stays the same.
decreases.
increases.

Chapter: 6, Question 29, Total: 266:
The tonsils, thymus, and spleen are components of the:

nervous system.
digestive system.
integumentary system.
lymphatic system.

Chapter: 6, Question 30, Total: 267:
The occipital, parietal, temporal, and frontal bones are all parts of the:

spinal column.
abdomen.
cranium.
rib cage.

Chapter: 6, Question 31, Total: 268:
The tube that carries inhaled air from the larynx down to the lungs is the:

bronchus.
esophagus.
epiglottis.
trachea.

Chapter: 6, Question 32, Total: 269:
The right ventricle pumps blood to the:

aorta.
left ventricle.
pulmonary vein.
pulmonary artery.

Chapter: 6, Question 33, Total: 270:
The upper chambers of the heart are known as the:

septum.
atria.
ventricles.
sinus nodes.

Chapter: 6, Question 34, Total: 271:
Deoxygenated blood FIRST enters the heart's:

right atrium.
left atrium.
left ventricle.
right ventricle.

Chapter: 6, Question 35, Total: 272:
The pulmonary veins are the only veins that carry:

capillary blood.
cardiac blood.
oxygen-rich blood.
oxygen-poor blood.

Chapter: 6, Question 36, Total: 273:
The second layer of the skin is called the:

subcutaneous layer.
melanin layer.
epidermis.
dermis.

Chapter: 6, Question 37, Total: 274:
Urine is transported to the bladder by the:

kidney.
ureter.
urethra.
fallopian tube.

Chapter: 6, Question 38, Total: 275:
Which bones have the same name in the upper extremities as they do in the lower extremities?

The metatarsals
The tarsals
The phalanges
The metacarpals

Chapter: 6, Question 39, Total: 276:
Compared to adults, which of the following is TRUE about the respiratory system in children?

The child's tongue takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx.
The child's trachea is more rigid and longer.
The child's trachea is wider and less easily obstructed.
The child's tongue takes up proportionally less space in the pharynx.

Chapter: 6, Question 40, Total: 277:
Oxygen aids in converting glucose into:

ATP.
ACL.
ADP.
AMP.



Chapter 7

Chapter: 7, Question 1, Total: 278:
The term "pathophysiology" means the study of:

changes in normal physiology due to disease or injury.
the effects of cancer on the body.
the pathway of normal metabolism in the body.
the effect of normal metabolic activity on maintaining the body's systems.

Chapter: 7, Question 2, Total: 279:
During shock states, cells often receive less oxygen. This is referred to as:

lactic acid production.
edema development.
hypoperfusion.
aerobic metabolism.

Chapter: 7, Question 3, Total: 280:
Which of the following is responsible for converting glucose and other nutrients into energy within a cell?

Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Lysosomes
Mitochondria

Chapter: 7, Question 4, Total: 281:
For adequate function, cells must have an adequate supply of oxygen, glucose, and:

lysosomes.
water.
nitrogen.
lactic acid.

Chapter: 7, Question 5, Total: 282:
What happens during normal perfusion?

Blood from the left ventricle exerts pressure on arterial walls.
Oxygen and nutrients are delivered; carbon dioxide and wastes are picked up.
Vessels constrict to maintain the blood pressure.
The diaphragm descends and the rib cage lifts to create a relative vacuum, causing air to rush into the lungs.

Chapter: 7, Question 6, Total: 283:
Cells produce the MOST energy from:

differential metabolism.
aerobic metabolism.
mitochondrial metabolism.
anaerobic metabolism.

Chapter: 7, Question 7, Total: 284:
To ensure adequate breathing, the patient must have both an adequate rate of ventilations and an adequate:

tidal volume.
number of platelets.
supply of nitrogen.
level of consciousness.

Chapter: 7, Question 8, Total: 285:
The normal volume that an adult inspires during ventilation is approximately:

250 ml.
1,000 ml.
500 ml.
750 ml.

Chapter: 7, Question 9, Total: 286:
A patient with pulmonary edema would suffer from:

inability to oxygenate the blood and remove carbon dioxide
hyperoxia, causing free radical damage to healthy tissue
slower and shallower respirations
too much blood flow causes too much carbon dioxide removal

Chapter: 7, Question 10, Total: 287:
Cardiac output is composed of:

stroke volume and heart rate.
systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and heart rate.
blood pressure and heart rate.
blood pressure.

Chapter: 7, Question 11, Total: 288:
The inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body's cells and supply them with oxygen and nutrients is known as:

V/Q mismatch.
apoptosis.
hypoperfusion.
hyperperfusion.

Chapter: 7, Question 12, Total: 289:
What division of the nervous system is activated when the body goes into shock?

Parietal
Somatic
Parasympathetic
Sympathetic

Chapter: 7, Question 13, Total: 290:
Which of the following is essential for efficient production of ATP?

Oxygen
Carbon
Argon
Nitrogen

Chapter: 7, Question 14, Total: 291:
Why should the patient who is in shock be administered oxygen?

The patient may be hypoxic at the cellular level.
Oxygen will help to lower the body temperature.
The vessels in the brain are dilated.
Oxygen helps to increase the blood flow through the lungs.

Chapter: 7, Question 15, Total: 292:
When a patient is compensating for shock, you may see which of the following signs?

Hypotension
Constricted pupils
Diaphoresis
Decreased pulses

Chapter: 7, Question 16, Total: 293:
What effect does sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart have on cardiac output?

The blood vessels dilate and the bronchial smooth muscle relaxes, decreasing cardiac output.
The heart rate increases and the blood vessels dilate, increasing cardiac output.
The heart rate and the strength of heart contraction increase, increasing cardiac output.
The heart rate slows and the blood vessels constrict, decreasing cardiac output.

Chapter: 7, Question 17, Total: 294:
An abnormally low amount of water in the body is termed:

euvolemia.
dehydration.
hypertension.
edema.

Chapter: 7, Question 18, Total: 295:
Which of the following is NOT a way in which fluid could be lost from the body?

Tachycardia
Major burns
Rapid breathing
Diaphoresis

Chapter: 7, Question 19, Total: 296:
Fever, tachypnea, and excessive sweating would likely lead to:

disruption of the body's fluid balance.
increased urinary output.
increased blood pressure and decreased pulse.
pulmonary edema.

Chapter: 7, Question 20, Total: 297:
When a patient develops hypoperfusion, the skin will be:

pale.
pink.
jaundiced.
flushed.

Chapter: 7, Question 21, Total: 298:
Disruption of nervous system communication is likely caused by:

hypotension.
spinal cord injury.
myocardial damage.
fluid loss.

Chapter: 7, Question 22, Total: 299:
Which of the following is a medical problem that can affect the nervous system but is not directly associated with its anatomy?

Hypoglycemia
Lou Gehrig's disease
Meningitis
Stroke

Chapter: 7, Question 23, Total: 300:
Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired?

Coordinated smile when asked to do so
Verbalizing complete sentences
Speaking in the patient's native language
Inability to speak clearly

Chapter: 7, Question 24, Total: 301:
Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired?

Equal grip strength bilaterally
Visual or hearing impairment
Light touch felt in both feet
Round and briskly reactive pupils

Chapter: 7, Question 25, Total: 302:
Which of the following is most likely to cause an endocrine disorder?

A hormone deficiencey.
Severe infection.
cardiac dysfunction.
Abnormal vital signs.

Chapter: 7, Question 26, Total: 303:
Which of the following is a serious complication of vomiting?

Hypertension
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Dehydration

Chapter: 7, Question 27, Total: 304:
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of perfusion?

Adequate levels of blood reaching the cells of the heart, brain, lungs, and kidneys
Adequate delivery of oxygen to, and removal of waste from, the tissues of the body
Adequate levels of oxygen reaching the cells for aerobic metabolism
When the heart can pump hard enough to allow blood to reach the heart, lungs, brain, and kidneys

Chapter: 7, Question 28, Total: 305:
Oxygen is transported through the blood by binding to:

white blood cells.
hemoglobin.
potassium sites.
alveoli.

Chapter: 7, Question 29, Total: 306:
What is shock?

The result of too little sugar being delivered to the brain
The decreased percentage of oxygen in all the tissues
The inability of the body to circulate blood to its cells
The reaction of a patient to an irritant, causing the person to cough

Chapter: 7, Question 30, Total: 307:
The state in which there is an adequate supply of oxygen to the cells and tissues of the body and waste products are removed from them is known as:

hypoperfusion.
hyperperfusion.
supraperfusion.
perfusion.

Chapter: 7, Question 31, Total: 308:
What is the liquid portion of the blood called?

Plasma.
Platelets.
Electrolytes in solute.
Electrolytes.

Chapter: 7, Question 32, Total: 309:
What type of metabolism occurs during the production of energy when there enough oxygen is present?

Aerobic
Differential
Mitochondrial
Anaerobic

Chapter: 7, Question 33, Total: 310:
What structure within a cell contains the genetic blueprint for reproduction?

Ribosomes
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Centrioles

Chapter: 7, Question 34, Total: 311:
Ambient air consists MOSTLY of:

nitrogen.
carbon dioxide.
oxygen.
argon.

Chapter: 7, Question 35, Total: 312:
What effect does the lack of oxygen have on the cell?

The body increase ATP production.
The body must utilize anaerobic metabolism.
The body decreases lactic acid production.
The body shifts to aerobic metabolism.

Chapter: 7, Question 36, Total: 313:
Decreasing the tidal volume will have what clinical effect on the amount of air available for gas exchange in the alveoli?

Greatly increase
Slightly increase
Not change
Decrease

Chapter: 7, Question 37, Total: 314:
Multiplying the tidal volume by the ventilation rate gives you the:

residual volume.
minute volume.
alveolar volume.
dead space.

Chapter: 7, Question 38, Total: 315:
Cardiac contractility refers to:

the amount of blood that is ejected with each contraction.
systemic vascular resistance.
how much blood is returned to the heart.
the force of contraction.

Chapter: 7, Question 39, Total: 316:
How do chemoreceptors aid in compensating for shock?

They sense increasing carbon dioxide and hypoxia and stimulate the respiratory system.
They detect changes in blood pressure and send a message to the brain to vasodilate.
They sense increased cardiac output and release epinephrine to vasoconstrict.
They detect changes in blood pressure and send a message to the brain to vasoconstrict.

Chapter: 7, Question 40, Total: 317:
What is the effect of hypoperfusion at the cellular level?

The cells cannot eliminate sugar.
Acids and waste products accumulate, damaging the cells.
The cells produce too much oxygen to survive.
The cells accumulate fats and proteins, which take up too much space in the cell.

Chapter: 7, Question 41, Total: 318:
Which of the following would you expect to see if a patient's body were compensating for impaired cardiopulmonary function?

Decreased level of consciousness
Hypotension
Increased heart rate
Hot, dry skin

Chapter: 7, Question 42, Total: 319:
Swelling that is associated with the movement of water into the interstitial space is called:

diffusion.
edema.
diaphoresis.
osmotic pressure.

Chapter: 7, Question 43, Total: 320:
If your patient is in decompensated shock, you should expect the patient to:

be hypotensive.
have swollen feet and ankles.
be hyperactive.
be hypertensive.

Chapter: 7, Question 44, Total: 321:
Which of the following is a sign of neurological impairment?

Lack of urine output
Altered mental status
Pale, diaphoretic skin
Uncontrollable shivering

Chapter: 7, Question 45, Total: 322:
Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired?

Rapid speech
Hyperactivity
Sharpened vision
Pupillary changes

Chapter: 7, Question 46, Total: 323:
A patient has a disease process that impairs the ability of the pancreas to produce insulin. This is a problem associated with what system?

digestive system.
endocrine system.
cardiovascular system.
respiratory system.



Chapter 8

Chapter: 8, Question 1, Total: 324:
The stage of development from one month of age to one year of age is referred to as:

toddlerhood.
adolescence.
infancy.
childhood.

Chapter: 8, Question 2, Total: 325:
What is the age range for a child in the school-age stage of development?

3 to 5 years
0 to 1 years
6 to 12 years
1 to 3 years

Chapter: 8, Question 3, Total: 326:
At what age is a child considered to be an adolescent?

11 to 15 years
15 to 19 years
12 to 18 years
9 to 11 years

Chapter: 8, Question 4, Total: 327:
What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn immediately after birth?

40 to 60 breaths per minute
20 to 30 breaths per minute
10 to 20 breaths per minute
30 to 50 breaths per minute

Chapter: 8, Question 5, Total: 328:
What concept is developed from an orderly, predictable environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment?

Scaffolding
Bonding
Temperament
Trust versus mistrust

Chapter: 8, Question 6, Total: 329:
Typically, at what age will a child begin developing "magical thinking" and engage in play acting?

3 to 4 years
12 months
18 to 24 months
24 to 36 months

Chapter: 8, Question 7, Total: 330:
If a full-term newborn weighs 2.5 kg at birth, this weight would be considered:

normal for gestational age.
inappropriate to interpret as normal or not without knowing the baby's height.
low for gestational age.
high for gestational age.

Chapter: 8, Question 8, Total: 331:
An infant's primary means of communication is:

babbling.
crying.
grunting.
grabbing.

Chapter: 8, Question 9, Total: 332:
If a patient is 65 years of age, what stage of development is this?

Early adulthood
Middle adulthood
Elderly adulthood
Late adulthood

Chapter: 8, Question 10, Total: 333:
At what age does the "midlife crisis" typically occur?

After 65 years of age
Between 20 and 30 years of age
Between 41 and 60 years of age
Between 18 and 35 years of age

Chapter: 8, Question 11, Total: 334:
Until how many weeks of age is an infant primarily a nose breather?

At least four weeks
About two weeks
At least two years
About six months

Chapter: 8, Question 12, Total: 335:
During what stage of development does self-esteem develop?

Adolescence
Preschool
Toddlerhood
School age

Chapter: 8, Question 13, Total: 336:
Which of the following is the major killer after age 40?

Pneumonia
Appendicitis
Renal failure
Heart disease