Chapter 1

Chapter: 1, Question 1, Total: 0:
An ambulance is:

any vehicle that is capable of transporting a nonambulatory patient.
a fire department transport unit.
a medically equipped emergency vehicle and communications unit.
a vehicle staffed with at least one paramedic.

Chapter: 1, Question 2, Total: 1:
Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation?

Rescue squad
Type A
Type I

Chapter: 1, Question 3, Total: 2:
Which of the following is typically a part of the on-board, permanently mounted equipment in the ambulance?

Fixed suction unit
Oxygen tank

Chapter: 1, Question 4, Total: 3:
An obstetrical kit should be kept on:

all ambulances.
ALS ambulances.
mobile critical care units.
pediatric ambulances.

Chapter: 1, Question 5, Total: 4:
Which of the following statements BEST explains the rationale for performing daily vehicle maintenance, performing a daily inspection, and having a routine maintenance schedule?

To increase patient safety and efficiency of response and transport
To lower your employer's liability insurance rates
To avoid disciplinary action and maximize the chances of merit raises
To maintain the validity of the vehicle's warranty

Chapter: 1, Question 6, Total: 5:
Which of the following is done during the daily vehicle inspection?

Changing the oil
Rotating the tires
Using a diagnostic code reader to detect mechanical problems
Checking door closing and latching mechanisms

Chapter: 1, Question 7, Total: 6:
Which of the following information is provided by the EMD when the call is dispatched?

Weather conditions
Patient diagnosis
Location of the call
Age of the caller

Chapter: 1, Question 8, Total: 7:
An EMD is an:

electronic misting device.
electrical monitoring distribution.
emergency medical defibrillator.
emergency medical dispatcher.

Chapter: 1, Question 9, Total: 8:
Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency is:

against the law.
legal only for municipal employees.
a privilege granted under law.
permitted only when a critical patient is on board.

Chapter: 1, Question 10, Total: 9:
Which of the following concepts should you always keep in mind when operating an emergency vehicle?

Other drivers' reactions to lights and sirens can be unpredictable.
It is permissible to use lights and sirens during nonemergency driving to facilitate returning to your station or posting.
If a vehicle does not yield to your lights and sirens on a two-way street and there is oncoming traffic, pass the vehicle on the right.
You should report any driver who does not yield to you while you are using lights and sirens.

Chapter: 1, Question 11, Total: 10:
Which of these statements is TRUE about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations?

You must come to a complete stop when entering an intersection against the light.
If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences.
You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call.
Most states allow you to travel as fast as you want at any time.

Chapter: 1, Question 12, Total: 11:
Which of the following is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST states?

Exceeding the posted speed limit
Speeding through school zone
Proceeding through a red light without slowing
Driving without due regard if the patient is critical

Chapter: 1, Question 13, Total: 12:
Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your ambulance?

Ahead of the collision site to avoid blocking traffic
Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients are, to block the view of people driving by
In the median or off the side of the road
To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

Chapter: 1, Question 14, Total: 13:
Which of the following is TRUE about crossovers on highways?

Ambulances are not permitted to use them.
They require a police escort.
They can be dangerous.
They are the safest way to turn around.

Chapter: 1, Question 15, Total: 14:
When transferring a patient to the ambulance, you must:

appropriately package the patient.
use at least three rescuers.
protect the patient's cervical spine.
place the patient in the position of comfort.

Chapter: 1, Question 16, Total: 15:
Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the ambulance?

Stokes basket
Wheeled ambulance stretcher
Folding backboard
Scoop stretcher

Chapter: 1, Question 17, Total: 16:
Which of the following must be done during patient transport?

Completion of the patient care report
Communication with medical direction
Confirmation of your field impression
Continuous monitoring of the patient

Chapter: 1, Question 18, Total: 17:
How will a patient with difficulty breathing likely prefer to be transported?

In a seated position
In Trendelenburg position
In a lateral recumbent position

Chapter: 1, Question 19, Total: 18:
When is the transfer of care at the receiving hospital completed?

Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care
Once the patient has been transferred to a hospital bed
After completion of the hospital admissions process
As soon as the patient is physically on the hospital's property

Chapter: 1, Question 20, Total: 19:
Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm that patient care has been transferred appropriately at the receiving hospital?

Speak directly to the accepting physician.
Notify your dispatch that you are available.
Obtain a signature from the hospital staff member who accepts patient care.
Document "transfer complete" on your PCR.

Chapter: 1, Question 21, Total: 20:
Which of the following is a proper infection control measure?

Sterilization of equipment that will be used invasively
The use of high-level disinfection for routine housekeeping on surfaces such as floors and ambulance seats
The use of intermediate-level disinfection for reusable instruments that come into contact with mucous membranes
The use of simple cleaning for surfaces that come into contact with intact skin, such as stethoscopes and blood pressure cuffs

Chapter: 1, Question 22, Total: 21:
Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a call?

Using high-level disinfection for all ambulances surfaces
Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper
Placing blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers
Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands

Chapter: 1, Question 23, Total: 22:
Which of the following is a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical patient?

You do not feel comfortable with critical patients.
The patient has health care insurance that will pay for air medical transport.
The weather is too bad for ground transportation.
The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground.

Chapter: 1, Question 24, Total: 23:
Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a helicopter?

Make sure the landing zone is 50 to 75 feet from any crashed vehicles if the helicopter is landing at the scene.
Keep spectators 50 to 100 feet from the landing zone.
Mark each corner of the landing zone, and put a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone.
Select an area that is a flat square with 100-foot sides for a small helicopter.

Chapter: 1, Question 25, Total: 24:
States often use which of the following to establish standards for their ambulances?

NFPA standards

Chapter: 1, Question 26, Total: 25:
Which of the following determines what equipment is required on an ambulance?

The state EMS office
The National Registry of EMTs
The on-duty emergency physician
Each ambulance crew

Chapter: 1, Question 27, Total: 26:
Which of the following is included in the daily inspection of the ambulance?

Recharging the fire extinguishers
Rotating the tires
Changing the engine oil
Checking the turn signals

Chapter: 1, Question 28, Total: 27:
A 911 caller states that her toddler was found in the swimming pool and isn't moving. The caller does not know how to perform CPR. Who is best trained to assist this caller?

Any physician's office
Poison Control
The police dispatcher

Chapter: 1, Question 29, Total: 28:
Which of the following is a basic guideline for safe driving?

Simultaneously driving and operating the radio
Selecting the shortest route of travel
Wearing a seatbelt except when you are in the back of the ambulance
Adjusting your speed to allow for decreased visibility at night or in fog

Chapter: 1, Question 30, Total: 29:
Which of the following is TRUE about inexperienced emergency vehicle operators?

They underutilize police escort.
They often increase driving speeds when using a siren.
They drive too slowly around curves and corners.
They are overly cautious.

Chapter: 1, Question 31, Total: 30:
Which of the following actions will reduce the risk of a collision at an intersection?

Use the horn as you drive through the intersection.
Use the PA system to direct traffic.
Come to a full stop before entering the intersection on a red or yellow light.
Request a police escort.

Chapter: 1, Question 32, Total: 31:
Which of the following is an appropriate use of an escort during emergency driving?

When the need for law enforcement at the scene is anticipated
When transporting a government official, foreign dignitary, or celebrity
As a last resort when you are not familiar with the location of the call or the hospital
When the patient you are transporting is under arrest

Chapter: 1, Question 33, Total: 32:
Which of the following guidelines should you follow for safety at roadway incidents?

Wear a uniform that has a reflective strip across the back of the shirt and down the outside of each pant leg.
Never trust approaching traffic.
Park so that the loading doors are toward oncoming traffic.
Park with your headlights directed toward upstream traffic on nighttime calls.

Chapter: 1, Question 34, Total: 33:
When transferring a high-priority patient to the ambulance, what is your first priority?

Patient comfort
Rapid transport
Patient privacy

Chapter: 1, Question 35, Total: 34:
If the patient is at risk for developing cardiac arrest during transport, the EMT should:

have a backboard ready.
place the patient prone.
delay transport.
apply the AED.

Chapter: 1, Question 36, Total: 35:
Which of the following actions is taken on arriving at the receiving hospital facility?

Report back in service as soon as you reach the receiving facility.
Complete your written report, and leave a copy at the emergency department before you go.
Remain with the patient until the ED physician is with the patient.
Leave the ED as soon as you have turned your patient over to the staff so that you are available for another call.

Chapter: 1, Question 37, Total: 36:
After a call, using a disinfectant such as bleach to kill microorganisms on your stretcher is called:


Chapter: 1, Question 38, Total: 37:
Which of the following actions is CORRECT when you are assigned to assist with a medical helicopter landing at a scene?

Allow a vertical height of at least 6 feet to safely approach under the main rotor.
Always approach the aircraft from the tail rotor.
Mark the landing zone with spotlights lights aimed upward.
Wear eye and hearing protection.

Chapter 2

Chapter: 2, Question 1, Total: 38:
Which of the following defines the term "hazardous material"?

Any material that is radioactive
Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property
Any material that is explosive or flammable
Any material that is poisonous if ingested

Chapter: 2, Question 2, Total: 39:
Which of the following defines a multiple-casualty incident?

A situation that places excessive demands on personnel and equipment
The requirement for two or more ambulances
A situation that requires extensive rescue efforts
Three or more critically injured patients

Chapter: 2, Question 3, Total: 40:
Which of the following should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials incident?

Smoke coming from the driver area of a vehicle involved in a head-on collision
Presence of a Class 1 placard
An out-of-control wildfire in a wooded area
Fire that starts on the lowest level of a structure

Chapter: 2, Question 4, Total: 41:
Which of the following should make the EMT consider the likelihood of a hazardous materials incident?

Calls involving children
An accident involving a car and a pedestrian
A car fire
Multiple patients with similar complaints

Chapter: 2, Question 5, Total: 42:
No minimum training hours are required for:

First Responder Operations
Hazardous Materials Technician.
Hazardous Materials Specialist.
First Responder Awareness.

Chapter: 2, Question 6, Total: 43:
Which of the following agencies has developed regulations for how emergency workers deal with hazmat incidents?


Chapter: 2, Question 7, Total: 44:
Which of the following has the HIGHEST priority at a hazardous materials incident?

Decontaminating clothing, equipment, and the vehicle
Providing patient care
Immediately removing patients from a hazardous area
Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

Chapter: 2, Question 8, Total: 45:
Your training has prepared you to recognize a potential hazardous material and request additional resources. This describes what level of training?


Chapter: 2, Question 9, Total: 46:
Which of the following should be established FIRST at a hazardous materials incident?

Triage units
Decon units
Patient care areas
Control zones

Chapter: 2, Question 10, Total: 47:
In which of the following areas at a hazmat incident are normal triage, stabilization, and treatment performed?

Warm zone
Cold zone
Command post
Temperate zone

Chapter: 2, Question 11, Total: 48:
Flammable solids, substances that are dangerous when wet, and spontaneously combustible materials are:

Class 3 materials.
Class 1 materials.
Class 4 materials.
Class 2 materials.

Chapter: 2, Question 12, Total: 49:
Which warning placard is diamond-shaped and divided into four smaller diamonds?

DOT hazard label
NFPA 704 system
Material data safety sheet (MSDS)
Bill of lading

Chapter: 2, Question 13, Total: 50:
Which of the following is the BEST description of a safety data sheet (SDS)?

Papers that must accompany hazardous materials during transport
A resource book published by the U.S. Department of Transportation for referencing hazardous materials
A placard that must be attached to a fixed container of hazardous materials
Papers kept on-site with hazardous chemicals

Chapter: 2, Question 14, Total: 51:
Which of the following is a 24-hour resource operated by the American Chemistry Council?


Chapter: 2, Question 15, Total: 52:
At a hazmat incident, all EMS personnel must be staged in the:

cold zone.
hot zone.
warm zone.
zone defined by the Incident Commander.

Chapter: 2, Question 16, Total: 53:
Which of the following must be assessed on a hazmat team member before he or she enters the hot zone?

Baseline vitals
Task assignment
Height and weight

Chapter: 2, Question 17, Total: 54:
Which of the following is the CORRECT terminology for a situation in which the number of patients exceeds the capabilities and resources of the EMS system?

Medical catastrophic incident
Multiple-casualty incident
Large-scale event

Chapter: 2, Question 18, Total: 55:
Which of the following is the MOST likely assignment for an EMT team at an MCI?

Public information officer
Rehab supervisor

Chapter: 2, Question 19, Total: 56:
If an EMS unit is the first to respond to a multiple-casualty incident, which role does the most senior EMT assume?

Ground chief
Section coordinator
Scene leader
Incident commander

Chapter: 2, Question 20, Total: 57:
Which of the following is a principal purpose of NIMS?

To allow the fire service to provide leadership at all MCIs
To decrease responder confusion
To allow each department or service to establish its own terminology for incidents
To prevent the first-arriving personnel from establishing command

Chapter: 2, Question 21, Total: 58:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about MCI triage?

CPR is begun on patients without breathing and a pulse if there are no injuries that are obviously incompatible with life.
It is inappropriate for EMTs to assign "walking wounded" patients to assist more seriously injured patients.
No interventions are performed during primary triage.
During primary triage, you should open a patient's airway and control severe bleeding.

Chapter: 2, Question 22, Total: 59:
What medical term is used to describe a process for prioritizing patients for treatment and transport on the basis of the severity of their conditions?


Chapter: 2, Question 23, Total: 60:
Which of the following is TRUE about decisions made by the transportation unit at an MCI?

High-priority patients should all be transported to the same hospital.
Each ambulance should radio the receiving hospital with a detailed patient report.
High-priority patients should be transported first, immediately after treatment.
Ambulatory patients may be sent to a hospital on a bus without EMS personnel.

Chapter: 2, Question 24, Total: 61:
If arriving units are not needed right away, they should wait in the:

treatment area.
staging area.
triage area.
transportation area.

Chapter: 2, Question 25, Total: 62:
Which of the following is an example of a rescue worker's abnormal reaction to a stressful MCI situation?

Having recurrent nightmares of the MCI months later
Loss of appetite for a couple of days after the incident
Missing a couple of nights sleep after the incident
Wanting to take off a couple of days from being physically exhausted

Chapter: 2, Question 26, Total: 63:
Which of the following do rescuers MOST commonly experience as a result of an MCI?

Physical injury
Physical incapacitation
Psychological breakdown

Chapter: 2, Question 27, Total: 64:
Which of the following will identify the substance and quantity of hazardous materials being transported?

Emergency Response Guidebook
NFPA 704 placard
Driver's log
Shipping manifests

Chapter: 2, Question 28, Total: 65:
Which of the following statements BEST explains the use of your senses to detect hazardous materials?

Using your senses is the most reliable way to detect the presence of hazardous materials.
Not all hazardous materials give sensory clues to their presence.
While all hazardous materials have characteristic odors, not everyone is capable of detecting them.
Visual clues, such as smoke and vapor clouds, are highly reliable in detecting hazardous materials.

Chapter: 2, Question 29, Total: 66:
Which of the following describes the roles of hazardous materials specialists?

They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading.
They provide command and support activities at the site of a hazardous materials incident.
They plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.
They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies.

Chapter: 2, Question 30, Total: 67:
When you call CHEMTREC, which information is essential?

The type and size of container involved
The address of the nearest hospital
Whether you have responded to hazardous materials incidents before
The color of the vehicle transporting the substance

Chapter: 2, Question 31, Total: 68:
Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm zone?

A complete physical examination and history
Packaging for transport
Debriefing about the nature of the exposure

Chapter: 2, Question 32, Total: 69:
Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA placard?


Chapter: 2, Question 33, Total: 70:
Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping papers?

The temperature at which the material vaporizes
The origin of the shipment
The specific gravity of the chemical
The specific health hazards of the material

Chapter: 2, Question 34, Total: 71:
What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or hot zones of a hazardous incident?

On returning to station, remove the clothing and launder it in hot water for two cycles.
Leave it at the scene.
Red bag the items, and place them in regular hospital biohazard containers.
Change into scrubs on arriving at the hospital, and place the clothing in hospital laundry.

Chapter: 2, Question 35, Total: 72:
Which of the following is TRUE about the treatment unit in an MCI?

Black-tagged patients are the first to be taken to the treatment area.
Triage continues in the treatment area, and patients may be moved from one area to another if their condition changes.
All injuries must be treated in the treatment area.
All patients must be treated in the same treatment area, even when the MCI covers a large geographical area.

Chapter: 2, Question 36, Total: 73:
Which of the following is an essential feature of a disaster preparedness plan?

Having a plan that can relocate the disaster to the closest hospitals
The ability to advise people to stay in place and protect their own property
A single, clearly marked evacuation plan and shelter area

Chapter: 2, Question 37, Total: 74:
To which of the following sectors is an EMT LEAST likely to be assigned at the scene of an MCI?


Chapter: 2, Question 38, Total: 75:
Which of the following is needed for effective response to an MCI?

On-scene physicians
Media coverage
Public participation
Requesting necessary resources

Chapter: 2, Question 39, Total: 76:
Which of the following BEST describes the use of secondary triage?

To categorize patients who are found after all of the other patients have been triaged
To reevaluate the treatment priorities that were made during primary triage
To be used when there are too many casualties to be categorized during the primary triage
To treat EMS workers who were injured while assisting in the first phase of the rescue operation

Chapter: 2, Question 40, Total: 77:
Which of the following statements BEST describes primary triage?

An initial determination of each patient's priority for treatment and transport
An assessment of the scene for mechanism of injury
An initial determination of the number of patients involved
A process of setting tactical objectives for the MCI

Chapter: 2, Question 41, Total: 78:
What does the triage mnemonic START stand for?

Simple treatment and rapid transport
Simple triage and rapid treatment
Simultaneous triage and rapid treatment
Simultaneous transport and rapid treatment

Chapter: 2, Question 42, Total: 79:
Priority 3 patients are also known as:

walking wounded.

Chapter: 2, Question 43, Total: 80:
While other patients are waiting for triage, what are appropriate treatment measures that can still be performed during the ongoing triage process?

Placing a patient on a backboard
Performing bag-valve-mask ventilations
Controlling severe bleeding
Applying a cervical collar

Chapter: 2, Question 44, Total: 81:
You are assigned to the triage unit at an MCI, and you are going from patient to patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the process?

Performing spinal immobilization
Opening the airway
Applying PASG
Performing bag-valve-mask ventilations

Chapter: 2, Question 45, Total: 82:
You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you wait while awaiting your assigned patient?

Base camp

Chapter: 2, Question 46, Total: 83:
Which of the following actions is appropriate to take during an MCI to reduce the stress of the event?

Periodically releasing frustration and anger
Sharing observations and experiences with the media
Taking a break to smoke a cigarette
Getting rest periods and food

Chapter: 2, Question 47, Total: 84:
EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should be:

sent home immediately.
treated as patients.
disciplined for shift abandonment.
assigned to noncritical patients.

Chapter 3

Chapter: 3, Question 1, Total: 85:
Which of the following is the MOST likely hazard at a highway accident scene?

Accidental needle stick
Undeclared hazardous materials
Additional response vehicles
Distracted drivers and oncoming traffic

Chapter: 3, Question 2, Total: 86:
Ideally, EMS units at an accident scene should be parked:

in a "safe zone."
facing oncoming traffic.
at least 100 yards from the scene.

Chapter: 3, Question 3, Total: 87:
Which of the following types of dispatches should cause you the highest concern about difficulty in accessing the patient?

A person who slipped and fell in a grocery store
A vehicle collision in a parking lot
A trench collapse
A person who fell from a first-story roof onto a driveway

Chapter: 3, Question 4, Total: 88:
Which of the following is the appropriate action to take if there is a downed power line across a vehicle that was involved in a collision and patients are still in the vehicle?

Advise the patients to open the car door without touching the outside of the car and then to quickly run to safety.
Advise the patients to stay inside the vehicle until the power company arrives and turns of power.
Hop over to the vehicle on one foot so that you do not make a complete electrical circuit.
Attempt to remove the power line with a wooden pole or broom handle.

Chapter: 3, Question 5, Total: 89:
What is a risk of using emergency lights at night on an accident scene?

The lights may slow approaching traffic.
The lights prevent EMS helicopters from landing.
The lights may frighten injured victims.
The lights may temporarily blind drivers.

Chapter: 3, Question 6, Total: 90:
When should emergency workers turn off their emergency vehicle headlights at an accident scene?

When you enter a school zone
During the day
When responding to a 911 call
When the lights may blind drivers of oncoming vehicles

Chapter: 3, Question 7, Total: 91:
Which of the following types of dispatch is MOST frequently associated with patient access problems?

Motor vehicle collisions
Cardiac patients
Diabetic patients
Obstetric/gynecology patients

Chapter: 3, Question 8, Total: 92:
Which of the following actions should you take immediately after gaining access to a patient in a vehicle?

Perform a focused history.
Stabilize the patient's cervical spine.
Stabilize the vehicle.
Request helicopter EMS.

Chapter: 3, Question 9, Total: 93:
Which of the following organizations provides extensive information on protective gear for emergency responders?


Chapter: 3, Question 10, Total: 94:
Which of the following is the BEST type of eye protection for EMS workers at an accident scene during extrication?

Safety goggles with a soft vinyl frame
Prescription glasses
Hinged plastic helmet shield
Regular sunglasses

Chapter: 3, Question 11, Total: 95:
Which of the following prevents a car door from opening during a crash?

Nader pin

Chapter: 3, Question 12, Total: 96:
When you are able to reach a patient by rolling down a window or opening a door, it is known as what type of access?


Chapter: 3, Question 13, Total: 97:
Yours is the first unit to arrive on the scene of a highway accident during a storm. There are several vehicles and patients involved, and visibility is poor. Your FIRST action should be to:

begin care for the most critical patient.
establish command and request additional resources.
remain in the vehicle until the weather improves.
announce on the PA that all patients should stay where they are.

Chapter: 3, Question 14, Total: 98:
Who is responsible for recognizing and managing hazards during night operations?

Law enforcement
The senior EMT
All rescuers
The EMS supervisor

Chapter: 3, Question 15, Total: 99:
During which phase of a response to a collision should you begin evaluating hazards and calculating the need for additional resources?

Forming a general impression
Secondary assessment
Scene size-up
Primary assessment

Chapter: 3, Question 16, Total: 100:
When positioning your ambulance at an accident scene at night, you should:

avoid loading the patient in the path of oncoming traffic.
leave the siren on while working the accident scene.
enter and exit the scene into oncoming traffic.
block as many traffic lanes as possible.

Chapter: 3, Question 17, Total: 101:
Which of the following always precedes removing a patient from a vehicle unless delay would endanger the patient's life or that of EMS personnel or other rescuers?

Primary assessment
Applying oxygen
Complete head-to-toe assessment
Splinting fractures

Chapter: 3, Question 18, Total: 102:
Full turnout gear should be worn:

in cold weather.
when landing an EMS helicopter.
at all accident scenes.
during extrication.

Chapter: 3, Question 19, Total: 103:
Which of the following would be the FIRST step in stabilizing a vehicle that is on its side?

Placing block cribbing along the length of the vehicle
Inflating an air bag on one side of the vehicle
Placing step chocks under the wheels on the lower side of the vehicle
Using a chain or cable to secure the vehicle to an immovable object

Chapter: 3, Question 20, Total: 104:
What type of access is required when you must use specialized tools to gain access to a patient in a vehicle?


Chapter 4

Chapter: 4, Question 1, Total: 105:
Into which of the following categories of hazardous materials do weapons of mass destruction commonly fall?

Organic peroxides
Toxic and flammable gases
Flammable solids, materials that are dangerous when wet, or materials that are spontaneously combustible

Chapter: 4, Question 2, Total: 106:
A zoonotic disease:

affects animals only.
can cross from animals to humans.
can only be spread through close contact.
affects humans only.

Chapter: 4, Question 3, Total: 107:
CBRNE agents include:

clandestine agents.
condemned agents.
chemical agents.
commercial agents.

Chapter: 4, Question 4, Total: 108:
Which of the following routes of biological agent exposure has the potential to cause more infection than any other route?


Chapter: 4, Question 5, Total: 109:
What is the EMT's FIRST priority during a terrorist event?

Personal safety
Crowd control
Patient care

Chapter: 4, Question 6, Total: 110:
Which of the following characteristics do chemical, biological, and radiological weapons of mass destruction share?

They are all identified by a pungent, acidic smell.
They can be difficult for EMS personnel to detect.
They are not affected by wind or water.
They are all easily contained once discovered.

Chapter: 4, Question 7, Total: 111:
Which of the following is one characteristic that distinguishes a terrorism event from most other mass casualty incidents?

A terrorism event will tax local resources.
A terrorism event may be dangerous for rescuers.
A terrorism event will likely involve multiple patients.
A terrorism event is also a crime scene.

Chapter: 4, Question 8, Total: 112:
Victims at an unexplained mass casualty incident report seeing an odd mist coming from the building's ventilation system. You should suspect:

a chemical incident.
a radiological incident.
an explosive incident.
a nuclear incident.

Chapter: 4, Question 9, Total: 113:
What penetrating power do alpha particles have?

Alpha particles can penetrate lead.
Alpha particles can penetrate the skin.
Alpha particles can penetrate multiple layers of clothing.
Alpha particles have little penetrating ability.

Chapter: 4, Question 10, Total: 114:
Safety at a terrorism event is based on time, distance, and:


Chapter: 4, Question 11, Total: 115:
Which of the following statements is TRUE about self-protection at a radiological event?

Every person reacts differently to radiation, and duration of exposure is not a factor.
Injury from radiation is immediate, and duration is not a factor.
Longer exposure increases the body's defense mechanisms.
Minimizing time in the affected area will reduce the potential for injury.

Chapter: 4, Question 12, Total: 116:
Thermal injury would MOST likely be due to:

a radiological event.
a biological event.
a nuclear event.
an explosive event.

Chapter: 4, Question 13, Total: 117:
Which of the following are victims of a terrorist event likely to experience, regardless of the type of incident?

Mechanical harm
Thermal harm
Psychological harm
Asphyxiation injury

Chapter: 4, Question 14, Total: 118:
Dissemination of a weapon of mass destruction refers to:

digesting the weapon.
dismantling the weapon.
manufacturing the weapon.
spreading the weapon.

Chapter: 4, Question 15, Total: 119:
For an ingested weapon to be effective, it would:

have to survive in an acidic environment.
have a very high pH level.
need to deliver a lethal dose within two hours.
require a very alkaline environment.

Chapter: 4, Question 16, Total: 120:
"Blast lung" is a consequence of:

penetrating shrapnel injuries.
thermal burns.
a high-energy overpressurization wave.
blunt trauma.

Chapter: 4, Question 17, Total: 121:
Which of the following is a common physiological reaction to a nerve agent?

Excessive salivation
Pupillary dilation

Chapter: 4, Question 18, Total: 122:
Injuries received during the secondary blast phase are caused by:

overpressurization wave.
blast projectiles.
heat or burn injuries.
personnel displacement.

Chapter: 4, Question 19, Total: 123:
When treating thermal injuries at a terrorism incident, the EMT should:

follow local protocols.
ensure that all patients are evaluated by ALS personnel.
follow FEMA blast injury protocols.
treat all injuries during transport.

Chapter: 4, Question 20, Total: 124:
Proper shielding at an MCI incident includes:

wearing the proper gear.
waiting until it is safe to enter the scene.
staying a safe distance away.
ensuring that adequate resources are responding.

Chapter: 4, Question 21, Total: 125:
Who is responsible for perimeter control at a terrorism incident?

Fire department personnel
Law enforcement personnel
EMS personnel
FEMA personnel

Chapter: 4, Question 22, Total: 126:
Which of the following is a measure of radiation dosage?


Chapter: 4, Question 23, Total: 127:
In addition to biological, nuclear, incendiary, and explosive, which of the following is a recognized category of weapons of mass destruction?


Chapter: 4, Question 24, Total: 128:
How should you approach the scene of a suspected chemical incident?

Approach from downwind.
Approach from downhill.
Approach from downstream.
Approach from upwind.

Chapter: 4, Question 25, Total: 129:
What should EMS responders do at a terrorism incident to assist law enforcement?

Detain suspicious personnel and call for law enforcement.
Recognize and report suspicious activities or objects.
Record as much video as possible.
Obtain witness statements when not providing patient care.

Chapter: 4, Question 26, Total: 130:
Which of the following should make you suspect a possible terrorism event?

A nontrauma mass casualty event
A plane crash
Multiple environmental emergencies at a concert event
A multivehicle crash

Chapter: 4, Question 27, Total: 131:
You are dispatched to an incident where multiple victims have been exposed to a nerve agent. This is a:

chemical event.
radiological event.
explosive event.
biological event.

Chapter: 4, Question 28, Total: 132:
Which of the following types of radiation is the MOST penetrating type of radiation, able to travel very long distances?


Chapter: 4, Question 29, Total: 133:
In addition to time and distance, what is a protective factor against radiation exposure?

Fresh air

Chapter: 4, Question 30, Total: 134:
Your patient has been exposed to a vesicant agent. His injuries will be caused by:

viral contact.

Chapter: 4, Question 31, Total: 135:
Injuries due to high-energy overpressurization are usually caused by:

a blast wave.
excessive heat.

Chapter: 4, Question 32, Total: 136:
Regardless of the cause, every blast has three phases. The first phase is called the:

tertiary phase.
secondary phase.
primary phase.
immediate phase.

Chapter: 4, Question 33, Total: 137:
During an MCI incident, responders should always:

communicate directly with the incident commander.
interview witnesses and bystanders.
follow established operating guidelines.
transport patients as soon as they are located.