Chapter 1

Chapter: 1, Question 1, Total: 0:

As an EMT who is responsible for giving medications, you should know that pharmacology is the study of:

drugs.
medications.
all substances used as remedies for illnesses.
pharmacy operations.

Chapter: 1, Question 2, Total: 1:

Which of the following BEST describes the suspension form of a medication?

A viscous substance that the patient swallows
Sprayed droplets
Drug particles mixed with a suitable liquid
A liquid substance with no particulate matter

Chapter: 1, Question 3, Total: 2:

Which of the following medications is acceptable for the EMT to administer or assist in administering?

Tylenol
Any medication authorized by medical control
Percodan
Epinephrine

Chapter: 1, Question 4, Total: 3:

Which of the following medications is administered by EMTs to treat a cardiac emergency?

Aspirin
Oral glucose
Activated charcoal
Epinephrine

Chapter: 1, Question 5, Total: 4:

The specific reason for administering a medication to treat a condition is known as the:

administration.
mechanism of action.
indication.
dose.

Chapter: 1, Question 6, Total: 5:

Which of the following is a desired result of the administration of a bronchodilator?

It dilates the coronary arteries.
It slows down the heart rate.
It enlarges bronchial tubes.
It dilates the peripheral vessels.

Chapter: 1, Question 7, Total: 6:

Which of the following medications is commonly administered by EMTs via an auto-injector?

Epinephrine
Albuterol
Aspirin
Nitroglycerin

Chapter: 1, Question 8, Total: 7:

Which of the following steps MUST be completed before a prescription medication is administered to a patient?

Confirm the medication belongs to the patient.
Verify the date the prescription was written.
Confirm with the patient's physician that the physician issued the prescription.
Verify the amount of the medication that has already been used.

Chapter: 1, Question 9, Total: 8:

Which of the following is an appropriate response if you are unsure about how much of a medication to administer?

Contact medical control.
Administer the whole container. They never put enough in one container to kill someone.
Call your dispatcher.
Guess the dosage on the basis of the way the medication is packaged.

Chapter: 1, Question 10, Total: 9:

Which of the following is generally NOT an element of on-line medical direction?

Clarification about medication dosage
Standing orders
Orders for patient treatment
Advice about patient treatment

Chapter: 1, Question 11, Total: 10:

Which of the following would be considered an example of on-line medical control?

Speaking to a physician on the radio
Receiving feedback from the service's quality assurance supervisor
Speaking to your medical director after the call
Administering a medication authorized by an existing protocol

Chapter: 1, Question 12, Total: 11:

You are to administer baby aspirin to your patient but are unsure of the dosage. You should:

contact medical direction.
look it up online if you have a smart phone.
ask your EMT partner.
not administer the medication but wait until you reach the emergency department.

Chapter: 1, Question 13, Total: 12:

Which of the following EMT-administered drugs is most commonly inhaled?

Nitroglycerin spray
Epinephrine
Activated charcoal
Oxygen

Chapter: 1, Question 14, Total: 13:

Your patient is extremely allergic to peanuts and has a prescription for self-administered epinephrine. The medication's route of administration is:

intramuscular auto-injector.
sublingual.
inhaled.
oral ingestion.

Chapter: 1, Question 15, Total: 14:

When you consider the effects a medication will have on the human body, you are considering:

pharmacodynamics.
the five rights of medication administration.
indications.
contraindications.

Chapter: 1, Question 16, Total: 15:

Which of the following statements is TRUE about geriatric patients?

They cannot take certain medications, such as aspirin.
They require a larger dose.
They will feel the effects for a shorter period of time.
They will have difficulty eliminating medications.

Chapter: 1, Question 17, Total: 16:

You have given a drug to the patient, and you are now at the hospital completing your PCR. Which of the following items should appear on your PCR?

The type of packaging the drug came in
The expiration date of the drug
The pharmacy that filled the prescription
The drug dose

Chapter: 1, Question 18, Total: 17:

After you administer a medication, the patient's condition suddenly worsens, and the patient goes into cardiac arrest. During your documentation, what should you include?

Only that you gave the drug, not how the patient responded.
Do not document that you gave the drug so that you will not be found at fault.
The drug you gave, its dose and route, and how the patient responded.
Document a different time for the drug administration so that it doesn't coincide with the change in the patient's condition.

Chapter: 1, Question 19, Total: 18:

Which of the following reference materials is helpful for identifying various medications and may be carried on the ambulance?

PDR
USP
Ph. Int.
NF

Chapter: 1, Question 20, Total: 19:

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven most common categories of medications found in the field and relevant to patient care?

Antiemetics
Antidiabetic agents
Antidysrhythmics
Antihypertensives

Chapter: 1, Question 21, Total: 20:

Which of the following is typically utilized by EMS personnel when fluid administration is not needed but vascular access is needed for drug administration?

Saline lock
Hickman catheter
PICC line
Central line

Chapter: 1, Question 22, Total: 21:

Which of the following steps in IV administration is performed FIRST?

Flush the tubing.
Spike the bag.
Squeeze the bag and check for leaks.
Inspect the bag.

Chapter: 1, Question 23, Total: 22:

Which of the following is a device that is attached to the end of a syringe to turn a medication into very fine droplets?

an auto-injector
an inhaler
an atomizer
a small volume nebulizer

Chapter: 1, Question 24, Total: 23:

The EMT may assist a patient in taking:

Tylenol.
nitroglycerin.
ibuprofen.
insulin.

Chapter: 1, Question 25, Total: 24:

As an EMT, you are allowed to administer or assist with the administration of some prescribed medications. These include:

any medications authorized by medical control.
Prozac.
an albuterol inhaler.
insulin.

Chapter: 1, Question 26, Total: 25:

Medications come in many forms. Oral glucose is an example of a:

suspension.
tablet.
liquid.
gel.

Chapter: 1, Question 27, Total: 26:

You are treating a patient who has nitroglycerin in his pocket. He says that he takes it when he has chest pain. For you to assist the patient, he must meet which of the following criteria?

The patient must have already taken aspirin.
The medication must be in tablet form.
The medication must be prescribed to the patient.
The patient must be pain free.

Chapter: 1, Question 28, Total: 27:

Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to aspirin administration?

History of angina
Chest pain
Patient over the age of 60
Gastrointestinal bleeding

Chapter: 1, Question 29, Total: 28:

When a cardiac patient is given aspirin, the route of administration should be:

oral, and the aspiring should be chewed.
by auto-injector in the thigh muscle.
in a mist that is inhaled.
in a gel that is wiped onto the gums.

Chapter: 1, Question 30, Total: 29:

When assisting a patient with self-administration of medication for a severe allergic reaction, the EMT should be careful to:

make sure the patient chews the medicine.
administer the medication through a straw.
have the patient swallow after the dose.
check the expiration date.

Chapter: 1, Question 31, Total: 30:

If you are unsure about the pediatric dose of a medication, you should:

consult medical control.
discuss the dose with the child's parent.
postpone administration until you arrive at the emergency department.
call your dispatcher.

Chapter: 1, Question 32, Total: 31:

Your patient with chest pain has nitroglycerin paste in place and nitroglycerin spray in his pocket. What should you do if you are unsure whether you should assist the patient with his spray, given that the paste is already in place?

Look it up on the Internet, using your smart phone.
Ask your dispatcher for help.
Look it up in your protocol book.
Contact on-line medical direction.

Chapter: 1, Question 33, Total: 32:

Your patient is having an asthma attack. She has her prescribed medication with her, and you have a protocol that authorizes you to assist her in taking her medication. Which of the following would be the most likely route of administration for this medication?

Small-volume nebulizer
Sublingual
Auto-injector device
Oral dose

Chapter: 1, Question 34, Total: 33:

Which of the following patients would likely have the MOST difficulty eliminating medications from the body?

15-year-old female
84-year-old male
6-year-old male
44-year-old female

Chapter: 1, Question 35, Total: 34:

Which of the following is of LEAST importance in documenting administration of a drug on the PCR?

Dose administered
Time the drug was given
Route of administration
Drug manufacturer

Chapter: 1, Question 36, Total: 35:

Your patient tells you that he has taken Advil for pain. What is the generic name for this medication?

Phenytoin
Ibuprofen
Acetaminophen
Nalbuphine

Chapter: 1, Question 37, Total: 36:

You have extricated a patient from a motor vehicle collision. Your partner started an IV while the patient was still trapped and has infused 500 ml. As you load the patient into the ambulance, you see that the line is no longer running. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

The tubing is kinked or under the backboard.
The patient's blood pressure is elevated.
The constricting band is still in place.
The vein has clotted.



Chapter 2

Chapter: 2, Question 1, Total: 37:

An inadequate supply of oxygen is known as:

shock.
dyspnea.
apnea.
hypoxia.

Chapter: 2, Question 2, Total: 38:

Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed for a respiratory disease?

Ipratropium
Pravachol
Pentothal
Metoprolol

Chapter: 2, Question 3, Total: 39:

Which of the following BEST describes the process of expiration in normal breathing?

Passive
Active
Contraction of rib muscles
Contraction of diaphragm

Chapter: 2, Question 4, Total: 40:

Which of the following structures separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities?

Thoracic cage
Mediastinum
Transverse line
Diaphragm

Chapter: 2, Question 5, Total: 41:

Your 44-year-old patient has a decreased level of consciousness, respiratory distress, and shallow breathing. You should immediately:

ask the patient whether she has an inhaler.
apply a nasal cannula.
apply a NRB mask.
assist ventilations.

Chapter: 2, Question 6, Total: 42:

A 71-year-old female presents with respiratory distress. She has diminished lung sounds and slow, shallow respirations. You note that she is cyanotic and confused. The patient is presenting with:

apnea.
tachypnea.
inadequate breathing.
adequate breathing.

Chapter: 2, Question 7, Total: 43:

Which of the following is TRUE about adult and pediatric patients?

The child's tongue is proportionally smaller than that of the adult.
Children depend more heavily on the diaphragm for respiration.
The airway of the adult is more rigid and therefore more easily obstructed.
The adult trachea is more flexible.

Chapter: 2, Question 8, Total: 44:

Which of the following statements about the differences between adults and children is TRUE?

The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible in infants and children.
The tongue of an adult is more apt to block the airway.
The diaphragm is more heavily used in the adult.
All airway structures of the adult are more easily blocked.

Chapter: 2, Question 9, Total: 45:

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is more common in pediatric patients than in patients in other age groups?

Cyanosis
Accessory muscle use
Tachypnea
Seesaw breathing

Chapter: 2, Question 10, Total: 46:

A 3-year-old male complains of breathing difficulty. You assess stridor and excessive drooling. Which of the following steps should you avoid in caring for this patient?

Monitoring vital signs
Application of high-concentration oxygen
Inspection of the throat
Placing the patient in the position of comfort

Chapter: 2, Question 11, Total: 47:

A 45-year-old male has dyspnea associated with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following would be the MOST important treatment?

Assist with a bronchodilator
High-concentration oxygen
CPAP
Fowler's position

Chapter: 2, Question 12, Total: 48:

If your patient is breathing adequately but with difficulty, you should first:

contact medical control for permission to administer nitroglycerin.
begin artificial ventilations.
verify breathing difficulty by using a pulse oximeter.
provide supplemental oxygen.

Chapter: 2, Question 13, Total: 49:

What is the BEST way to determine whether artificial ventilations are adequate?

The patient's SpO2 will increase.
The patient's color will improve.
The patient's LOC will improve.
The patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation.

Chapter: 2, Question 14, Total: 50:

At what rate per minute should you ventilate an infant?

24
20
12
16

Chapter: 2, Question 15, Total: 51:

Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. She also tells you that her feet and ankles are unusually swollen. This swelling is:

an associated symptom.
the chief complaint.
a pertinent negative.
an irrelevant distraction.

Chapter: 2, Question 16, Total: 52:

What is the best position for a patient with dyspnea?

Trendelenburg
Supine
Position of comfort
Lateral recumbent

Chapter: 2, Question 17, Total: 53:

En route to the hospital, it is important to perform an ongoing assessment of the patient with breathing difficulty. While reevaluating your patient, remember that:

a decrease in accessory muscle use is concerning.
decreased wheezing may not indicate improvement.
the use of an MDI may normally cause the heart rate to slow.
moist skin usually correlates with an improving condition.

Chapter: 2, Question 18, Total: 54:

A 65-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. You wish to obtain a "room air" pulse oximetry reading but realize the pulse oximeter is in the ambulance. You should:

immediately administer supplemental oxygen.
wait to administer oxygen until your partner can retrieve the oximeter.
immediately move the patient to the ambulance.
withhold oxygen as a pulse oximetry reading is necessary.

Chapter: 2, Question 19, Total: 55:

Which of the following sounds is created by the presence of fluid in the alveoli and the very small airways of the lungs?

Stridor
Gurgling
Wheezes
Crackles

Chapter: 2, Question 20, Total: 56:

A 2-year-old male is having severe respiratory distress caused by a partial obstruction of his upper airway by a foreign object. Which of the following sounds would most likely be associated with this condition?

Wheezing
Gurgling
Crackles
Stridor

Chapter: 2, Question 21, Total: 57:

Which of the following would be considered an appropriate reason to use a spacer in assisting a patient with a rescue inhaler?

Spacers require the patient to breathe less deeply.
Spacers increase drug concentration.
Spacers allow administration of lower doses.
Spacers make exact timing less important.

Chapter: 2, Question 22, Total: 58:

Which of the following patients would MOST likely benefit from use of a prescribed inhaler?

An asthma patient with wheezing
A unresponsive patient with apnea
A CHF patient with pulmonary edema
An emphysema patient with decreased LOC

Chapter: 2, Question 23, Total: 59:

Which of the following patients is a candidate for CPAP?

Cardiac asthma patient who is hypotensive
Pulmonary edema patient who is normotensive but struggling to breathe
Emphysemic patient who is tachycardic and disoriented
Asthmatic patient who is not breathing adequately

Chapter: 2, Question 24, Total: 60:

A 25-year-old male is complaining of difficulty breathing after a submersion (near drowning) injury. He says that the breathing difficulty "came on all of a sudden." You note rales when listening to his chest. His vital signs are P 120, R 36, BP 130/88. You should NEXT:

initiate positive-pressure ventilations.
administer CPAP.
assist with a bronchodilator inhaler.
administer nitroglycerin.

Chapter: 2, Question 25, Total: 61:

Why should the EMT explain the CPAP device to the patient?

Insurance will typically not cover the treatment, and permission must be given.
The device might cause the patient to feel smothered and anxious.
The treatment may lead to COPD.
The patient must understand how a CPAP machine works.

Chapter: 2, Question 26, Total: 62:

Why are nausea and vomiting a contraindication to CPAP?

CPAP may lead to a pneumothorax.
A nauseated person cannot tolerate the mask.
The corneas of the eyes may become dried.
CPAP may cause an increased risk of aspiration.

Chapter: 2, Question 27, Total: 63:

Patients with COPD often get progressively worse and call an ambulance because of:

pneumothorax.
upper airway obstruction.
recent upper respiratory infection.
pulmonary embolism.

Chapter: 2, Question 28, Total: 64:

A respiratory condition that was formerly prominent in children who presented with stridor and drooling but is now more often found in adults is:

croup.
epiglottitis.
asthma.
chronic bronchitis.

Chapter: 2, Question 29, Total: 65:

A 29-year-old female complains of a sore throat and runny nose for three days. Today she notes she is having difficulty breathing due to frequent and severe coughing spells. She is alert and oriented and her vital signs are P 84, R 20, BP 122/80. Given her symptoms, you should suspect:

asthma
pulmonary embolism
viral respiratory infection
COPD

Chapter: 2, Question 30, Total: 66:

An 89-year-old male complains of an acute onset of shortness of breath. He notes it came on suddenly and awoke him from sleep. You note he is alert, has severe difficulty breathing and you auscultate rales when listening to his lung sounds. His vital signs are P 128, R 44, BP 210/150. You should:

initiate positive pressure ventilations
await the arrival of ALS
initiate CPAP
assist the patient with his albuterol inhaler.

Chapter: 2, Question 31, Total: 67:

Which of the following lung sounds is the result of narrowed bronchioles of the lower airway?

Rales
Rhonchi
Wheezing
Stridor

Chapter: 2, Question 32, Total: 68:

Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

Larynx
Diaphragm
Carina
Alveoli

Chapter: 2, Question 33, Total: 69:

Sporadic, irregular breathing that is usually seen just before respiratory arrest is otherwise known as:

Cyanosis
Agonal breathing
Diaphragmatic breathing
Crowing

Chapter: 2, Question 34, Total: 70:

Which of the following patients is MOST susceptible to infections of the upper airway, such as croup?

43-year-old
27-year-old
3-year-old
19-year-old

Chapter: 2, Question 35, Total: 71:

Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are most commonly seen in:

cystic fibrosis patients.
pediatric patients.
pneumonia patients.
elderly patients.

Chapter: 2, Question 36, Total: 72:

A 68-year-old male COPD patient complains of acute-onset dyspnea and right-sided chest pain. When you listen to his chest, you hear no lung sounds over the right side. His vital signs are P 122, R 40, BP 140/80. You should first administer:

high-concentration oxygen.
nitroglycerin for the pain.
a bronchodilator treatment.
the Cincinnati prehospital stroke scale.

Chapter: 2, Question 37, Total: 73:

Your patient has stopped breathing but still has a pulse. You should immediately:

provide artificial ventilations.
start compressions.
request ALS.
question bystanders.

Chapter: 2, Question 38, Total: 74:

Patients with wheezing are most likely experiencing:

apnea.
narrowed airway passages.
fluid buildup in the alveoli.
upper airway obstruction.

Chapter: 2, Question 39, Total: 75:

If the patient has difficulty breathing that is leading to hypoxia, it is likely that her color will be:

flushed.
red.
pale.
cyanotic.

Chapter: 2, Question 40, Total: 76:

Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. Which of the following statements is correct about management of this patient?

A pulse oximeter reading over 90% is considered normal.
Do NOT delay administration of oxygen for a patient in respiratory distress.
Withhold oxygen unless the pulse oximeter reads below 90%.
Do NOT administer oxygen until a pulse oximeter reading has been obtained.

Chapter: 2, Question 41, Total: 77:

A 71-year-old male complains of an acute onset of severe respiratory distress. He is anxious but alert and states, "I feel like I am dying." His vital signs are P 122, R 40, BP 210/108. His pulse oximetry reads 89%. You should first:

administer 6 lpm oxygen via a nasal cannula.
administer 15 lpm oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
administer 6 lpm oxygen via a simple face mask.
initiate positive pressure ventilations.

Chapter: 2, Question 42, Total: 78:

A 16-year-old male has been found unconscious after a motor vehicle crash. As you approach the patient you hear gurgling. You should suspect:

complete airway obstruction.
fluid in the upper airway.
lower airway obstruction.
respiratory arrest.

Chapter: 2, Question 43, Total: 79:

You are caring for an asthma patient with dyspnea. Which of the following would MOST likely benefit this patient?

CPAP
An epinephrine auto-injector
Artificial ventilations
A bronchodilator medication

Chapter: 2, Question 44, Total: 80:

Your 26-year-old female patient has breathing difficulty and has been prescribed a MDI bronchodilator. All the requirements to administer the medication have been met. The steps in administering the bronchodilator include:

having the patient inhale fully, then place her lips around the mouthpiece.
placing the patient on a nasal cannula for convenience.
leaving the oxygen off the patient until you can assess whether the medication worked.
instructing the patient to hold her breath for as long as is comfortable after inhaling the medication.

Chapter: 2, Question 45, Total: 81:

A 65-year-old conscious female is in severe pulmonary edema. You have determined the appropriate need for CPAP. You should NEXT:

ensure that the patient has no allergies.
explain the device to the patient.
begin positive-pressure ventilations.
apply the mask to the patient's face.

Chapter: 2, Question 46, Total: 82:

Which of the following would be considered a common DISADVANTAGE of a Venturi mask CPAP system?

It is heavier.
It works only on adult patients.
It uses oxygen quickly.
It requires a charged battery.

Chapter: 2, Question 47, Total: 83:

You respond to the regional airport to remove an elderly patient from a plane that just landed from a long flight. A respiratory condition that may be caused by a deep vein thrombosis after sitting for a long time is called:

croup.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
asthma attack.
pulmonary embolism.

Chapter: 2, Question 48, Total: 84:

In which of the following diseases are there episodic flares but the patient can lead a normal life between flares?

Asthma
Emphysema
COPD
Pertussis

Chapter: 2, Question 49, Total: 85:

A permanent disease process that is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls and distention of the alveolar sacs is a type of COPD called:

epiglottitis.
asthma.
pneumonia.
emphysema.

Chapter: 2, Question 50, Total: 86:

A condition in which a lung collapses without any chest trauma is called:

random pneumothorax.
hemopneumothorax.
vacuous pneumothorax.
spontaneous pneumothorax

Chapter: 2, Question 51, Total: 87:

Your patient woke up in the middle of the night with extreme shortness of breath. He says that he has a "cardiac history" and always sleeps with three pillows. He denies any chest pain. What is MOST likely his condition?

Spontaneous pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Pulmonary edema

Chapter: 2, Question 52, Total: 88:

A 75-year-old woman complains of acute onset shortness of breath. She states she began to have chest pain and then it rapidly began to be difficult for her to breath. The patient notes a history of COPD and prior episodes of a "collapsed lung." When you auscultate her chest you note absent lung sounds on the left side. You should next:

initiate transport.
assist the patient with her Ventolin inhaler
initiate CPAP.
administer aspirin.



Chapter 3

Chapter: 3, Question 1, Total: 89:

Which of the following terms is used to represent any symptoms that are related to a lack of oxygen in the heart muscle?

Angina pectoris
Coronary artery disease
Acute coronary syndrome
Congestive heart failure

Chapter: 3, Question 2, Total: 90:

Which term refers to a heart rate of below 60 beats per minute?

Agonal
Tachycardia
Dysrhythmia
Bradycardia

Chapter: 3, Question 3, Total: 91:

Your patient has a pulse of 56. This is known as:

tachypnea.
bradypnea.
tachycardia.
bradycardia.

Chapter: 3, Question 4, Total: 92:

Death to a portion of the heart muscle is known as:

cardiac arrest.
ventricular fibrillation.
myocardial infarction.
angina pectoris.

Chapter: 3, Question 5, Total: 93:

Which of the following would MOST likely differentiate pain associated with angina from pain associated with myocardial infarction?

The pain completely resolves with rest.
The pain is above a "5" on a 1-10 scale.
The pain is sharp rather than dull.
The pain increases with movement.

Chapter: 3, Question 6, Total: 94:

When assessing the patient's symptoms, you should:

allow the patient to describe symptoms in his own words.
give the patient a list of specific symptoms to confirm or deny.
use closed-ended questions for efficiency.
let the patient know you are only interested in the severity of pain.

Chapter: 3, Question 7, Total: 95:

A 65-year-old male complains of chest pain that started about 45 minutes ago. His skin is pale and clammy, and he has very little energy. His vitals are respirations of 24, pulse of 110, and BP of 88/60. What priority would you give this patient?

Low because his respirations are normal
High because of the elevated pulse
Low unless there is breathing difficulty
High because of the low blood pressure reading

Chapter: 3, Question 8, Total: 96:

In the mnemonic OPQRST, the "P" stands for:

pressure.
provocation.
pallor.
perspiration.

Chapter: 3, Question 9, Total: 97:

You must reassess your patient within two minutes after administering nitroglycerin, as one of the side effects is:

a brief feeling of shortness of breath.
a sudden decrease in heart rate.
numbness and tingling in the extremities.
a decrease in blood pressure.

Chapter: 3, Question 10, Total: 98:

After administration of nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, the patient becomes pale, weak, and dizzy. You should immediately:

begin artificial ventilations.
place the patient supine and reassess vitals.
apply the AED.
have the patient drink some water.

Chapter: 3, Question 11, Total: 99:

Which of the following situations could contraindicate the administration of aspirin?

The patient is having a heart attack.
The patient has a history of GI bleeding.
There is no water available to take the pills with.
The patient is taking any other medications.

Chapter: 3, Question 12, Total: 100:

Which of the following is an expected side effect of aspirin?

Hypertension
Fever
Increased clotting
Heartburn

Chapter: 3, Question 13, Total: 101:

The key difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is that:

the pain of myocardial infarction usually goes away on its own.
angina typically occurs at rest.
myocardial infarction is usually caused by stress.
the pain of angina usually goes away with rest.

Chapter: 3, Question 14, Total: 102:

An 80-year-old male is presenting with pedal edema, JVD, and dyspnea. You should suspect:

pulmonary embolism.
anaphylaxis.
multi-system trauma.
congestive heart failure.

Chapter: 3, Question 15, Total: 103:

What is the single MOST important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest?

Early CPR
Rapid transport
Effective ALS
Immediate recognition

Chapter: 3, Question 16, Total: 104:

Which of the following would NOT be considered an element of post cardiac arrest care?

Early defibrillation
Maintaining adequate oxygenation
Inducing hypothermia
12-lead EKG

Chapter: 3, Question 17, Total: 105:

You have just used an AED to deliver a shock to your cardiac arrest patient. You should immediately:

begin artificial ventilations.
re-analyze with the AED.
check a carotid pulse.
resume chest compressions.

Chapter: 3, Question 18, Total: 106:

Which of the following skills is typically NOT used to manage the airway and breathing of a patient in cardiac arrest?

Suctioning
Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
Application of oxygen via nasal cannula
Opening airway manually

Chapter: 3, Question 19, Total: 107:

In which of the following dysrhythmias would it be most important to apply and engage an automatic external defibrillator?

Asystole
Pulseless electrical activity
Atrial tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia

Chapter: 3, Question 20, Total: 108:

Which of the following types of defibrillators will adjust the amount of energy used on the basis of impedance?

Implanted defibrillator
Triphasic defibrillator
Biphasic AED
Monophasic AED

Chapter: 3, Question 21, Total: 109:

If a shock is not indicated, how many cycles of CPR will you give before analyzing again?

10
15
2
5

Chapter: 3, Question 22, Total: 110:

Typically, how many shocks should you administer on scene before transport, assuming that the shocks are ineffective?

4
3
1
2

Chapter: 3, Question 23, Total: 111:

Which of the following is a contraindication for use of the AED?

The patient is in contact with metal.
The patient is hypothermic.
The patient has been down for over 10 minutes.
The patient is under 8 years of age.

Chapter: 3, Question 24, Total: 112:

Which of the following statements about the AED is correct?

AEDs can analyze in a moving vehicle but cannot shock.
Biphasic AEDs can analyze the rhythm in a moving vehicle.
The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle.
The AED can always analyze the rhythm in a moving vehicle.

Chapter: 3, Question 25, Total: 113:

When using a mechanical CPR device, you should:

limit interruptions in chest compressions to 10 seconds or less.
switch to manual CPR for every other set.
limit use of the device to 10 minutes or less.
stop ventilations during transport.

Chapter: 3, Question 26, Total: 114:

To what adjunctive device does the Thumper CPR device attach?

Ambulance cot
Short backboard
Long backboard
Scoop stretcher

Chapter: 3, Question 27, Total: 115:

A patient with acute pulmonary edema is suffering from what pathological change to the lungs?

Increase in alveolar capillary bed oncotic pressure
Decrease in alveolar capillary bed hydrostatic pressure
Decrease in surfactant levels in the alveoli
Increased amount of fluid filling the alveoli

Chapter: 3, Question 28, Total: 116:

Chest pain due to angina or myocardial infarction is caused by a blockage in the:

aorta
coronary artery
pulmonary artery
pulmonary vein

Chapter: 3, Question 29, Total: 117:

Any irregular heart rhythm is known as:

fibrillation.
pulseless electrical activity.
asystole.
dysrhythmia.

Chapter: 3, Question 30, Total: 118:

Which of the following cardiac patients is most likely to present WITHOUT the typical presentation of chest discomfort?

Women
Males
Athletes
Bariatric patients

Chapter: 3, Question 31, Total: 119:

Which of the following is TRUE about cardiac compromise?

All adult chest pain patients should be given nitroglycerin and aspirin.
The AED should be applied to all adult patients who are complaining of chest pain.
There are no medications within the EMT scope that can help to limit damage to heart muscle.
All adults with chest discomfort should be treated as having a cardiac emergency.

Chapter: 3, Question 32, Total: 120:

Which of the following is a transient side effect of nitroglycerin and typically not of concern?

Hypotension
Headache
Syncope
Nausea

Chapter: 3, Question 33, Total: 121:

65-year-old male complains of acute onset chest pain. He says that he is also nauseated and weak. You note that he is sweaty and slightly pale, and his vital signs are P 110, BP 84/60, R 24. His oxygen saturation is 95 percent on room air. You should first:

administer 324 mg of aspirin.
administer 12 lpm oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
apply an AED.
administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin.

Chapter: 3, Question 34, Total: 122:

Which of the following is the MOST common site for an aneurysm leading to an emergency situation?

Jugular vein
Aorta
Femoral artery
Brachial artery

Chapter: 3, Question 35, Total: 123:

Which of the following events is the cause of the majority of out-of-hospital deaths that are attributed to coronary artery disease?

Change to cerebral blood flow from tachycardic rates
Lethal cardiac rhythm disturbance
Increased intracranial pressure in the brain
Sudden increase in the blood pressure

Chapter: 3, Question 36, Total: 124:

What is the MOST common reason for cardiac arrest in the pediatric population?

Airway and ventilatory problems
Acute coronary occlusions
Traumatic events
Sudden cardiac dysrhythmias

Chapter: 3, Question 37, Total: 125:

After a shock by the AED, the patient has a return of spontaneous circulation. You should immediately:

resume CPR.
assess the patient's breathing.
re-analyze with the AED.
transport the patient.

Chapter: 3, Question 38, Total: 126:

Which of the following must the EMT do while the AED analyzes the rhythm?

Continue high-quality CPR.
Ventilate at a rate of 12 per minute.
Stay clear.
Check for a pulse.

Chapter: 3, Question 39, Total: 127:

In which of the following situations should an AED be immediately attached and deployed?

A patient with an implanted pacemaker
A provider touching the patient
A patient touching metal
A patient lying in water

Chapter: 3, Question 40, Total: 128:

You are using the AutoPulse Resuscitation System. An advanced airway is in place. What is the correct compression rate?

75
100
60
80



Chapter 4

Chapter: 4, Question 1, Total: 129:

Acute abdominal pain, sometimes called an acute abdomen, is a common condition. Which of the following is TRUE about an acute abdomen?

Medical texts list only a few causes of abdominal pain.
Most causes of an acute abdomen will be obvious.
Acute abdominal pain has a sudden onset.
There is no need for the EMT to consider abdominal pain to be life threatening.

Chapter: 4, Question 2, Total: 130:

The abdominal region between the abdomen and the back is called the:

anterior space.
mediastinum.
superior cavity.
retroperitoneal space.

Chapter: 4, Question 3, Total: 131:

Which of the following is a solid abdominal organ?

Stomach
Liver
Gallbladder
Appendix

Chapter: 4, Question 4, Total: 132:

The right upper abdominal quadrant contains:

the spleen and pancreas.
the appendix.
part of the large intestine and the female reproductive organs.
the liver and gallbladder.

Chapter: 4, Question 5, Total: 133:

Pain in the abdomen that originates from the organs is termed:

referred pain.
parietal pain.
visceral pain.
tearing pain.

Chapter: 4, Question 6, Total: 134:

Pain that is felt in regions other than the one where the source of the pain lies is called:

phantom pain.
translocation pain.
regional pain.
referred pain.

Chapter: 4, Question 7, Total: 135:

Your patient complains of right shoulder pain. She denies trauma. Which of the following is most likely?

Gallbladder problems
Intestinal obstruction
Food poisoning
Appendicitis

Chapter: 4, Question 8, Total: 136:

Renal colic refers to:

kidney stones.
abdominal bleeding.
gallstones.
appendicitis.

Chapter: 4, Question 9, Total: 137:

Problems with the kidneys can sometimes present with pain to the:

feet.
chest.
flank.
neck.

Chapter: 4, Question 10, Total: 138:

Your patient is in severe pain stating that his discomfort radiates from his flank to his groin. You also note that the patient is feeling nauseas and cannot find a position of comfort. Based on these assessment findings, what is most likely the cause of his distress?

Renal colic
GI Bleeding
Hernia
Appendicitis

Chapter: 4, Question 11, Total: 139:

You arrive on scene to a 54-year-old male complaining of abdominal pain. He states he does not want to go to the hospital but simply wants you to check his vital signs. As you assess your patient, which assessment finding would lead you to believe he is suffering an acute myocardial infarction?

Right upper quadrant pain persistent for the past 2 days
Patient states dull, cramping pain in his mid-upper abdomen.
Flank pain radiating to the groin.
Right upper quadrant pain unrelieved by position.

Chapter: 4, Question 12, Total: 140:

You are on scene with a 47-year-old female patient complaining of "stomach pain" but tells you that she thinks she's having a "heart attack." She states she has a history of "gall stones, high blood pressure, and kidney stones." What assessment finding would lead you to believe that the patient may be suffering a myocardial infarction?

Right upper quadrant pain unrelieved by position
Acute epigastric pain
Non-radiating right lower quadrant pain
Flank pain radiating to anterior mid abdomen

Chapter: 4, Question 13, Total: 141:

You are assessing a 34-year-old female patient complaining of right lower quadrant pain. What is the proper technique to assess her abdomen?

Palpate the right lower quadrant first
Palpate the right lower quadrant last
Press into the left upper quadrant with the palm of your hands
Palpate deeply in order to thoroughly evaluate abnormalities in the abdomend

Chapter: 4, Question 14, Total: 142:

Your abdominal pain patient presents with pale, cool skin, tachycardia, and hypotension. You should first:

perform a complete secondary assessment.
treat the patient for shock.
ask the patient about illegal drug use.
assess orthostatic vital signs.

Chapter: 4, Question 15, Total: 143:

What question should you ask to determine if your female patient is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy?

Are you sexually active?
What form of birth control do you use?
How many times has you been pregnant?
Have you ever had a miscarriage?

Chapter: 4, Question 16, Total: 144:

You are caring for a middle-aged male patient who complains of sudden, sharp, cramping pain in the right upper region of his abdomen; a dull ache in his right shoulder blade; and some nausea and vomiting. He states that the pain began about 30 minutes after he ate a lobster dinner, and he rates the pain as a 7 on a scale of 10. The pain is unrelieved with antacids. What would you suspect the cause of his discomfort to be?

Cholecystitis
Appendicitis
Kidney stones
Hepatitis

Chapter: 4, Question 17, Total: 145:

Pain that is felt in a place other than where it originates is called:

referred pain.
diffuse pain.
somatic pain.
distributed pain.

Chapter: 4, Question 18, Total: 146:

"Tearing" abdominal pain is most likely caused be an emergency involving the:

large intestine.
aorta.
gallbladder.
pancreas.

Chapter: 4, Question 19, Total: 147:

After suffering a trauma, this organ may leak bacterial fluids into the abdomen.

Lungs
Spleen
Liver
Stomach

Chapter: 4, Question 20, Total: 148:

How would you compare the amount of bleeding from injured solid organs as compared to injured hollow organs?

Hollow organs tend to be more vascular than solid organs.
Solid organs will bleed more than the hollow organs.
Solid organs will bleed less than the hollow organs.
Solid and hollow organs will bleed about the same.

Chapter: 4, Question 21, Total: 149:

The purpose of the spleen is to:

filter nutrients from the blood and store glucose.
hold bile that aids in the digestion of fats.
aid in the production of blood cells and the filtering and storage of blood.
aid in digestion and regulate carbohydrate metabolism.

Chapter: 4, Question 22, Total: 150:

The mechanism behind the cause of tearing pain is:

the actual tearing of the external layer of the blood vessel.
the shear forces that are imposed on the organs.
the injury that occurs to the middle lining of the artery, causing pressure on the external lining.
the pulling away of the blood vessel from supporting structures.

Chapter: 4, Question 23, Total: 151:

Upper central abdominal pain just below the xiphoid is called:

epigastric pain.
subgastric pain.
lower quadrant pain.
umbilical pain.

Chapter: 4, Question 24, Total: 152:

You are caring for a 48-year-old female patient who is suffering from abdominal pain. She was released from the hospital earlier in the day and was told that she may have an irritation to the lining of the abdomen caused by an infection. You should suspect:

pancreatitis.
a stomach ulcer.
peritonitis.
a gallbladder condition.

Chapter: 4, Question 25, Total: 153:

You respond to the scene of a 22-year-old male who was squatting "heavy weights" when he experience sudden and severe lower mid abdominal pain. While assessing the patient, he denies any radiating pain stating that most of his pain "is near his groin." Based on these findings, what is the patient MOST likely suffering:

appendicitis.
GI bleeding.
an abdominal evisceration.
a hernia.

Chapter: 4, Question 26, Total: 154:

Your patient complains of epigastric pain. He has a cardiac history and an ulcer. Which of the following is most indicative of a cardiac problem?

The pain is heavy and constant.
Antacids help to reduce the pain.
Lying down increases the pain.
The pain is relieved by eating.

Chapter: 4, Question 27, Total: 155:

Diarrhea is a common symptom of which types of medical disorders?

Liver disease
Cholecysitis
Kidney stones
Intestinal disorders

Chapter: 4, Question 28, Total: 156:

You are treating a patient in his mid-50s who is complaining of acute abdominal distress. When should you consider the use of oxygen therapy?

Oxygen therapy is appropriate if there are signs of hypoperfusion
Oxygen is appropriate for any patient with abdominal pain
Oxygen should not be administered until you consult medical direction
Additional signs of hypoperfusion must be present to consider oxygen therapy

Chapter: 4, Question 29, Total: 157:

Your patient presents with abdominal guarding. This is a sign of:

severe chest pain.
hypotension.
infection.
severe abdominal pain.

Chapter: 4, Question 30, Total: 158:

Your patient presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following questions is MOST important to ask?

Have you ever called 911 before?
Why did you wait to call?
Is the pain really that bad?
How would you describe the pain?

Chapter: 4, Question 31, Total: 159:

Until it is proven otherwise, you should assume that a missed or late menstrual period is due to:

stress.
menopause.
IUD.
pregnancy.



Chapter 5

Chapter: 5, Question 1, Total: 160:

The blood component that is responsible for the initial clotting of blood is the:

plasma.
red blood cell.
platelet.
white blood cell.

Chapter: 5, Question 2, Total: 161:

Removal of blood to artificially filter it and then return it to the circulation is termed:

continuous cycle assisted peritoneal dialysis.
peritoneal dialysis.
continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis.
hemodialysis.

Chapter: 5, Question 3, Total: 162:

One of the major roles of the hematological system is to deliver oxygen to the tissues of the body. This is accomplished through the:

platelets.
red blood cells.
white blood cells.
plasma.

Chapter: 5, Question 4, Total: 163:

Shortly after you sustain a minor injury, such as a cut in the skin, you notice a white substance (pus) emanating from the wound. This substance consists of:

water that normally surrounds the cells of the tissue.
red blood cells that are transparent when outside the plasma.
plasma containing a massive number of white blood cells.
a massive number of microorganisms that are leaking from the tissue.

Chapter: 5, Question 5, Total: 164:

Which of the following medications is a blood thinner?

Atenolol
Coumadin
Lasix
Cardizem

Chapter: 5, Question 6, Total: 165:

A drug that is commonly used to prevent clot formation, especially in heart patients, is:

Prilosec
Procardia
Plavix
Premarin

Chapter: 5, Question 7, Total: 166:

A disease of the blood that affects the shapes of the blood cells is:

leukemia.
myoglobin.
sickle cell anemia.
hematuria.

Chapter: 5, Question 8, Total: 167:

What is the difference between sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait?

Nothing; the two conditions are exactly the same.
The disease is present in both cases, but symptoms appear only in sickle cell anemia.
In sickle cell trait, the disease is present but only with mild symptoms; in sickle cell anemia, the disease could be fatal.
In sickle cell anemia, the patient has the disease; in sickle cell trait, the patient carries the genes for the disease.

Chapter: 5, Question 9, Total: 168:

A patient having a sickle cell crisis often will complain of joint pain. What is the explanation for this complaint?

The joint pain is the result of a vaso-occlusive component of the disease.
The joint pain is due to the ischemia of the extremities from the inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen.
Sickle cell disease causes microfractures in the bone ends.
The joint pain is the result of a loss of collagen in the joints.

Chapter: 5, Question 10, Total: 169:

What is the benefit of administering oxygen to a patient who is having a sickle cell crisis?

It helps to prevent additional sickling of the red blood cells.
Higher levels of oxygen in the blood help to restore sickled cells into normal cells.
It maximizes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells that can carry oxygen to the tissue.
It is largely psychological, leading patient to believe that it is helping him or her.

Chapter: 5, Question 11, Total: 170:

In the renal system, the urinary bladder serves to:

separate the water from the filtrates of the urine.
filter urine from the blood.
concentrate the urine through reabsorption.
store urine for later excretion

Chapter: 5, Question 12, Total: 171:

Which of the following statements about the renal system is true?

The ureters are shorter in the male than in the female.
The urethra is shorter in the female than in the male.
If one kidney fails, the individual must either receive a transplant or undergo hemodialysis regularly.
Men have urinary tract infections at least as often as women do.

Chapter: 5, Question 13, Total: 172:

Which of the following is a common cause of acute renal failure?

Angina pectoris
Fluid overload
Stroke
Shock

Chapter: 5, Question 14, Total: 173:

Which of the following is a common cause of chronic renal failure?

Blocked urinary catheter
Crush injuries
Diabetes
Massive multiple system trauma

Chapter: 5, Question 15, Total: 174:

The basic principal behind either hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis is to:

balance the amount of urea.
balance the number of red blood cells in the blood.
balance the number of white blood cells in the blood.
remove the waste and excess fluid from the blood.

Chapter: 5, Question 16, Total: 175:

Dialysis patients who receive dialysis at home typically receive:

osmotic dialysis.
hemodialysis.
in-patient dialysis.
peritoneal dialysis

Chapter: 5, Question 17, Total: 176:

What contributes MOST to the acutely serious complications from end-stage renal disease?

Consumption of foods that should be avoided
Use of medications that should be avoided
Failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments
Failure to control hypertension adequately

Chapter: 5, Question 18, Total: 177:

Which of the following is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis?

Dislodgement of the AV fistula
Peritonitis
Development of thrill at the AV fistula site
Hypothermia

Chapter: 5, Question 19, Total: 178:

You respond to the scene of a dialysis clinic where you presented with a 64-year-old male patient with blood soaked bandages noted around his right arm at the site of his A-V fistula. How should you manage this patient's hemorrhage?

Immediately place the patient on high-flow oxygen then treat the hemorrhage
direct pressure on the A-V fistula with elevation
Place tourniquet as close to the A-V fistula as possible
Immediately place a tourniquet directly on the A-V fistula

Chapter: 5, Question 20, Total: 179:

Most dialysis patients:

are on dialysis only temporarily.
have other underlying diseases.
recover normal kidney function.
experience chronic peritonitis.

Chapter: 5, Question 21, Total: 180:

Of all the transplantable organs, which is MOST commonly transplanted?

Liver
Kidneys
Lungs
Heart

Chapter: 5, Question 22, Total: 181:

Kidney transplant patients spend the rest of their lives:

with hyperactive immune function.
on special medications to prevent rejection.
in a wheelchair.
on less frequent dialysis.

Chapter: 5, Question 23, Total: 182:

Many dialysis patients undergo a surgical procedure that connects an artery with a vein in an extremity. This surgical connection is called a:

fistula.
arteriovenous graft.
fissure.
vascular juncture.

Chapter: 5, Question 24, Total: 183:

Dead, diseased, or injured white blood cells are removed from the body via the:

bone marrow.
gastrointestinal system.
pulmonary system.
spleen and the lymphatic system.

Chapter: 5, Question 25, Total: 184:

You arrive at the home of a 47-year-old female who reportedly lost her balance on her front porch, fell backward, and struck her head. She is awake and alert but complains of a headache. The only medications that she takes are Plavix and aspirin. What concerns should you have for this patient?

The medications that she is taking will mask the pain that she could be having from her head injury.
The combination of these two mediations may cause seizures that may have led to her fall in the first place.
The combination of these two medications is probably why she lost her balance in the first place.
The anticoagulant drugs could cause a serious bleed in her head.

Chapter: 5, Question 26, Total: 185:

Why do patients with sickle cell disease sometimes develop jaundice?

Most patients with sickle cell disease also have hepatitis because of repeated blood transfusions.
The jaundice is a product of the powerful medications that are necessary to treat sickle cell disease.
The sickled red blood cells tend to leak the hemoglobin into the blood plasma.
The red blood cells that are sickled do not survive long and tend to accumulate in the liver, awaiting destruction. This accumulation overwhelms the liver function, and bilirubin accumulates in the blood.

Chapter: 5, Question 27, Total: 186:

The sludging of sickled RBCs in the capillaries results in:

increased oxygen carrying potential.
transient hypertension.
severe pain in the chest, abdomen, and extremities.
a temporary increase in pulse oximetry readings.

Chapter: 5, Question 28, Total: 187:

When an individual becomes dehydrated, how do the kidneys compensate for this state?

Only one kidney will continue filtration, while the other goes dormant.
The kidneys reduce the amount of blood that is initially filtered.
The kidneys temporarily shut down to prevent additional fluid loss.
The kidneys return almost all of the water into the bloodstream, causing the urine to be highly concentrated with waste.

Chapter: 5, Question 29, Total: 188:

You respond to the home of a patient in cardiac arrest who is dependent on hemodialysis. Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of the patient's cardiac arrest?

Hidden bleeding somewhere in the body from the loss of platelets from the hemodialysis treatments
Infusion of too much fluid back into the body during hemodialysis
An imbalance of electrolytes and an accumulation of toxins in the patient's blood due to a delay in hemodialysis
Excessive fluid loss from the most recent hemodialysis treatment

Chapter: 5, Question 30, Total: 189:

Patients with acute renal failure:

may be able to recover normal kidney function.
are not candidates for hemodialysis.
usually have only one kidney.
cannot recover normal kidney function.

Chapter: 5, Question 31, Total: 190:

Patients receiving peritoneal dialysis who experience abdominal pain, fever, and cloudy dialysis fluid are possibly suffering from

peritonitis.
AV fistula malfunction.
electrolyte imbalance.
completion of dialysis treatment.

Chapter: 5, Question 32, Total: 191:

The MOST common complications of hemodialysis include:

Infection
bleeding from the needle puncture site and infection
Fistula thrombosis
Fistula occlusion.

Chapter: 5, Question 33, Total: 192:

Recipients of kidney transplants are much more prone to:

abnormal weight loss.
heart failure.
infections.
high blood pressure.